⭐ High-Yield Recurring Concepts
Derived from themes that repeat across the source papers (pages 1–100 plus the 2024/25 scripts). The more a theme recurs, the more likely it returns. Counts are how many separate SAQs touch each theme. Diagrams for the top themes are embedded inside each discipline below.
Anatomical Pathology
34 SAQsCardiovascular System (CVS)
3 SAQsa) Discuss hypertensive heart disease under: (i) gross morphology (5), (ii) microscopic features (5), (iii) chronic complications (5).
b) List four common causes of dysphagia (4).
c) Discuss oesophageal carcinoma under: (i) 3 common predisposing factors (3), (ii) macroscopic and microscopic features (3).
a) Hypertensive heart disease
(i) Gross morphology: concentric left-ventricular hypertrophy; increased heart weight (often >500 g); LV free-wall thickness >1.5–2 cm; reduced chamber size early, dilatation late; left atrial enlargement.
(ii) Microscopic: myocyte hypertrophy with enlarged rectangular "box-car" nuclei; increased cell diameter; interstitial and perivascular fibrosis.
(iii) Chronic complications: congestive cardiac failure; arrhythmias/atrial fibrillation; ischaemic heart disease; sudden cardiac death.
b) Four causes of dysphagia: oesophageal carcinoma; peptic strictures; achalasia; oesophageal webs/rings (or extrinsic compression / GERD).
c) Oesophageal carcinoma
(i) Predisposing factors: tobacco smoking; alcohol; very hot beverages / dietary nitrosamines (Barrett's oesophagus/GERD for adenocarcinoma).
(ii) Macroscopic: polypoid/fungating, ulcerating or diffusely infiltrating mass; SCC mid-oesophagus, adenocarcinoma lower third. Microscopic: SCC — nests of malignant squamous cells with keratin pearls and intercellular bridges; adenocarcinoma — malignant glands with mucin.
- Concentric LVH with box-car nuclei = hypertensive heart disease; heart often >500 g.
- SCC sits in the mid-oesophagus; adenocarcinoma in the lower third (Barrett/GORD).
- Answer HHD in the three asked sub-parts (gross / micro / complications) to bank all marks.
- Dysphagia: give a mix of mechanical (carcinoma, stricture, web) and motility (achalasia) causes.
- Progressive dysphagia for solids then liquids + weight loss in an older smoker = oesophageal carcinoma until proven otherwise.
- LVH concentric, heart >500 g, wall >1.5 cm
- Myocyte hypertrophy, box-car nuclei, interstitial fibrosis
- Complications: CCF, arrhythmia, IHD, sudden death
- 4 causes of dysphagia named
- Oesophageal ca risks: smoking, alcohol, hot drinks/Barrett
- SCC keratin pearls / adenocarcinoma mucin glands
Dysphagia causes → "CARM": Carcinoma, Achalasia, Rings/webs, Motility/stricture.
Concentric LV hypertrophy with box-car myocyte nuclei indicates:
- ADilated cardiomyopathy
- BHypertensive heart disease
- CAmyloidosis
- DMyocarditis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus most often arises in the:
- ALower third
- BMiddle third
- CUpper third
- DGastro-oesophageal junction
- HHD = concentric LVH + box-car nuclei + fibrosis.
- SCC mid-oesophagus; adenocarcinoma lower third.
- Progressive solid→liquid dysphagia + weight loss = carcinoma.
Discuss rheumatic heart disease under: (a) pathogenesis, (b) morphology, (c) complications.
a) Pathogenesis: sequela of rheumatic fever following pancarditis from Group A β-haemolytic streptococcal infection. Cross-reactive immune response between host and streptococcal antigens (antigenic mimicry) → autoimmunity → destruction of endocardium at valves (esp. mitral) → valvular heart disease.
b) Morphology: Aschoff bodies with Anitschkow cells; "bread-and-butter" pericarditis; fibrin vegetations on valves (verrucae); MacCallum's plaques on the left atrium; sub-endocardial thickening with wrinkling of the posterior wall.
c) Complications: chronic disease is dominated by mitral stenosis → left atrial enlargement → atrial fibrillation → mural thrombus and systemic thromboembolism (e.g. stroke); pulmonary venous congestion and pulmonary hypertension → right-sided and congestive cardiac failure; infective endocarditis on the deformed valves; recurrent rheumatic activity; sudden cardiac death. (Aortic involvement may add left-ventricular hypertrophy, angina and syncope.)
- Aschoff body (with Anitschkow "caterpillar" cells) is the histological hallmark of rheumatic carditis.
- Chronic RHD = mitral stenosis is the dominant lesion.
- Verrucae (small fibrin vegetations) sit along the valve closure line; MacCallum plaques mark the left atrium.
- Mitral stenosis → left atrial dilatation → atrial fibrillation → mural thrombus → systemic embolism/stroke.
- Pathogenesis: Group A strep, molecular mimicry (type II)
- Pancarditis: endo-, myo-, pericardium
- Aschoff bodies + Anitschkow cells
- Verrucae on valves; MacCallum plaque
- Bread-and-butter pericarditis
- Complications: mitral stenosis, AF, embolism, IE, failure
Rheumatic fever criteria (Jones) → "J♥NES": Joints, ♥ carditis, Nodules, Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea.
Aschoff bodies are pathognomonic of:
- AInfective endocarditis
- BRheumatic carditis
- CViral myocarditis
- DSarcoid heart
The valve most commonly affected in chronic rheumatic heart disease is the:
- AAortic
- BMitral
- CTricuspid
- DPulmonary
- Aschoff body + Anitschkow cell = rheumatic carditis.
- Molecular mimicry = type II hypersensitivity.
- Chronic RHD → mitral stenosis → AF → embolism.
List five cyanotic congenital cardiac conditions and outline the abnormalities in each.
- Hypoplastic left heart syndrome — underdeveloped left heart affecting mitral valve, left ventricle and aorta
- Tetralogy of Fallot — VSD, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, right-ventricular hypertrophy
- Transposition of the great arteries — aorta and pulmonary artery switched
- Tricuspid atresia — undeveloped tricuspid valve impairing flow between RA and RV
- Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection — pulmonary veins not connected to the left atrium
- The classic cyanotic lesions are the "5 Ts" — right-to-left shunt mixes deoxygenated blood into the systemic circulation.
- Tetralogy of Fallot is the commonest cyanotic lesion beyond infancy: VSD, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, RVH ("boot-shaped" heart).
- Name 5 cyanotic lesions
- Each with its structural defect
- Tetralogy = 4 components
- TGA: aorta from RV, PA from LV
- Right-to-left shunt concept
Cyanotic "5 Ts" → Tetralogy, Transposition, Truncus arteriosus, Tricuspid atresia, TAPVC.
The four features of Tetralogy of Fallot are VSD, overriding aorta, right-ventricular hypertrophy and:
- AAtrial septal defect
- BPulmonary stenosis
- CCoarctation
- DPatent ductus
In transposition of the great arteries:
- AThe aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left
- BBoth great vessels arise from the LV
- CThere is a single arterial trunk
- DThe tricuspid valve is absent
- Cyanotic = right-to-left shunt ("5 Ts").
- TOF = VSD + pulmonary stenosis + overriding aorta + RVH.
- TGA needs a mixing shunt (PDA/ASD/VSD) to survive.
Gastrointestinal Tract (GIT)
9 SAQsa) Define tuberculous peritonitis. b) What are the clinical features and morphologic variants?
a) Inflammation of the peritoneum due to infection with M. tuberculosis, usually from spread of the pathogen (e.g. haematogenous, lymphatic).
b) Clinical features: colicky abdominal pain; ascites; fever; weight loss; night sweats; general malaise.
Morphological variants: wet (ascitic) type, with exudative ascites; dry (plastic/adhesive/fibrous) type, with caseating granulomas, adhesions and matting of viscera; encysted (loculated) type, with localised fluid collections.
- Caseating granuloma with Langhans giant cells = tuberculosis; peritoneal TB usually spreads haematogenously or from adjacent viscera.
- Wet (ascitic), dry (adhesive) and encysted (loculated) variants — the dry type mats viscera together.
- Exudative, lymphocyte-rich ascites with a high protein and low glucose; ADA and AFB/culture confirm.
- Definition: peritoneal inflammation by M. tuberculosis
- Spread: haematogenous/lymphatic/contiguous
- Clinical: ascites, fever, weight loss, night sweats
- Variants: wet / dry / encysted
- Caseating granuloma morphology
TB granuloma layers (in→out): Caseation → Epithelioid histiocytes → Langhans cells → Lymphocytes ("CELL").
The hallmark lesion of tuberculous peritonitis is a:
- ANon-caseating granuloma
- BCaseating granuloma with Langhans giant cells
- CNeutrophilic abscess
- DFibrinoid necrosis
Tuberculous ascitic fluid is typically:
- ATransudative, low protein
- BExudative, lymphocyte-rich, low glucose
- CBloody with malignant cells
- DChylous
- Caseation + Langhans cells = TB.
- Variants: wet, dry, encysted.
- Exudative lymphocytic ascites, high ADA.
List four clinical features of autoimmune gastritis and for each provide the pathologic basis.
Note: autoimmune gastritis targets the body/fundus oxyntic mucosa, destroying parietal cells, so it causes achlorhydria and loss of intrinsic factor. It does NOT cause acid-related ulcers or heartburn (the original card described peptic ulcer disease). The correct features follow.
1. Fatigue and pallor: pernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia. Anti-parietal-cell and anti-intrinsic-factor antibodies → loss of intrinsic factor → vitamin B12 malabsorption in the terminal ileum.
2. Neurological symptoms (paraesthesiae, sensory ataxia, subacute combined degeneration): B12 deficiency damages the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts.
3. Atrophic glossitis (smooth, sore, beefy-red tongue): epithelial effect of B12 deficiency.
4. Achlorhydria with hypergastrinaemia: parietal-cell loss removes acid feedback → G-cell and ECL-cell hyperplasia, predisposing to gastric neuroendocrine (carcinoid) tumours and an increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma.
- Autoimmune gastritis targets the body/fundus oxyntic mucosa, destroying parietal cells → achlorhydria + loss of intrinsic factor.
- It causes pernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia via B12 malabsorption — NOT acid ulcers. A common trap in the source answer.
- Anti-parietal-cell and anti-intrinsic-factor antibodies; hypergastrinaemia → ECL hyperplasia → carcinoid risk.
- Parietal-cell destruction (body/fundus)
- Achlorhydria + loss of intrinsic factor
- B12 malabsorption → megaloblastic anaemia
- Neurological (SACD), glossitis
- Hypergastrinaemia → carcinoid / adenocarcinoma risk
Autoimmune gastritis = "ABCD": Autoantibodies, B12 deficiency, Carcinoid/cancer risk, Dorsal-column signs.
Autoimmune gastritis characteristically causes:
- ADuodenal ulcers
- BPernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia
- CIron overload
- DZollinger-Ellison syndrome
The antibodies in autoimmune gastritis are directed against:
- AG cells and gastrin
- BParietal cells and intrinsic factor
- CChief cells and pepsinogen
- DGoblet cells
- Autoimmune gastritis = body/fundus, parietal-cell loss.
- → achlorhydria + no intrinsic factor → B12 deficiency.
- Hypergastrinaemia → carcinoid risk.
Describe gastric adenocarcinoma: 1) WHO classification, 2) aetiology of the main classes, 3) gross pathology of early versus advanced gastric cancer.
1) WHO histological classification: tubular; papillary; mucinous; poorly-cohesive (including signet-ring cell) carcinoma; mixed. (Lauren classification divides it into intestinal and diffuse types.)
2) Aetiology of the main classes: Intestinal type — chronic H. pylori gastritis progressing through atrophic gastritis → intestinal metaplasia → dysplasia; diet high in nitrates/smoked/salted foods. Diffuse type — CDH1 (E-cadherin) mutation; weaker environmental link.
3) Gross, early vs advanced: Early gastric cancer — carcinoma confined to mucosa/submucosa (irrespective of nodal status); protruding, superficial or excavated. Advanced — extends beyond the submucosa into muscularis and beyond; fungating/polypoid, ulcerating or infiltrating (Borrmann types); diffuse infiltration produces the rigid "linitis plastica" (leather-bottle) stomach.
- Early gastric cancer = confined to mucosa/submucosa (regardless of nodes); advanced = beyond submucosa.
- Lauren intestinal type = H. pylori/metaplasia pathway; diffuse type = CDH1/E-cadherin loss, signet-ring cells, linitis plastica.
- WHO types: tubular/papillary/mucinous/poorly-cohesive/mixed
- Lauren: intestinal vs diffuse
- Intestinal aetiology: H. pylori, nitrates, metaplasia
- Diffuse: CDH1 mutation, signet-ring
- Early vs advanced definition
- Linitis plastica described
Diffuse gastric ca → "CDH1 = Cells Diffuse, Hard stomach 1" (E-cadherin loss → signet-ring → linitis plastica).
Linitis plastica (leather-bottle stomach) is produced by the:
- AIntestinal type
- BDiffuse (signet-ring) type
- CMALT lymphoma
- DGIST
Early gastric carcinoma is defined by invasion limited to the:
- AMucosa/submucosa only
- BMuscularis propria
- CSerosa
- DRegional nodes
- Early GC = mucosa/submucosa; advanced = deeper.
- Intestinal type = H. pylori pathway.
- Diffuse = CDH1, signet-ring, linitis plastica.
1a) Classify, with examples, focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis using (i) etiologic criteria (2), (ii) morphological criteria (2). 1b) Application of: (i) direct immunofluorescence for membranous glomerulonephritis (4); (ii) indirect immunofluorescence for crescentic glomerulonephritis (3); (iii) proteomics for renal amyloidosis (2). 1c) Three similarities and four differences between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease (7). 1d) Morphologic and molecular sequence in colonic adenocarcinoma (5).
Dr Okemwa's marking scheme (Anatomic Pathology) — excerpts:
1a(i) Etiology: primary/idiopathic, genetic (APOL1 risk variants), or secondary/acquired (HIV-associated, heroin, obesity, sickle cell, reduced nephron mass; hypertension is a weaker adaptive cause). 1a(ii) Morphology: based on renal biopsy — cellular variant and collapsing variant.
1b(i) Direct immunofluorescence for membranous GN: granular subepithelial IgG and C3 along the capillary loops (PLA2R-positive in primary membranous). 1b(iii) Proteomics for renal amyloidosis: laser microdissection with mass spectrometry to type the amyloid protein (AL, AA or ATTR); Congo red is the confirmatory stain, not proteomics.
1b(ii) Indirect immunofluorescence for crescentic glomerulonephritis: patient serum is layered onto a substrate and bound antibody detected with a fluorescent anti-human immunoglobulin; it identifies circulating autoantibodies - anti-GBM antibodies (linear pattern) or ANCA (pauci-immune) - and so helps classify the crescentic (rapidly progressive) GN.
1c) Ulcerative colitis versus Crohn disease
Three similarities: both are chronic idiopathic inflammatory bowel diseases; both present with bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain and follow a relapsing-remitting course; both carry extra-intestinal manifestations (arthritis, uveitis, skin lesions) and an increased colorectal cancer risk.
| Feature | Ulcerative colitis | Crohn disease |
|---|---|---|
| Site | Colon and rectum only, continuous | Any part of the GI tract (mouth to anus), skip lesions |
| Depth | Mucosa and submucosa | Transmural |
| Granulomas | Absent | Present (non-caseating) |
| Complications | Toxic megacolon | Fistulae and strictures |
1d) Colonic adenocarcinoma - morphologic and molecular sequence: the classic adenoma-carcinoma sequence. Morphologically: normal mucosa → aberrant crypt foci → adenomatous polyp (tubular → tubulovillous → villous) with increasing dysplasia → invasive adenocarcinoma. Molecularly: APC loss (initiation) → KRAS mutation → loss of 18q (SMAD) → TP53 loss, driving progression to carcinoma. (The microsatellite-instability / mismatch-repair pathway is an alternative route.)
Note: the original card carried only Dr Okemwa's excerpts for 1a and part of 1b; parts 1b(ii), 1c and 1d have been added here as worked model answers - verify against Robbins.
- FSGS: focal (some glomeruli) and segmental (part of the tuft) sclerosis; a leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.
- Direct IF puts a labelled antibody on the tissue (e.g. membranous = granular subepithelial IgG); indirect IF uses patient serum on a substrate.
- UC = continuous mucosal colitis, crypt abscesses, ↑cancer risk; Crohn = skip lesions, transmural, non-caseating granulomas.
- FSGS: etiologic (primary/APOL1/HTN) + morphologic variants
- DIF for membranous GN; IIF for crescentic GN
- Proteomics for amyloid (Congo red)
- UC vs Crohn: 3 similarities + 4 differences
- Colonic adenocarcinoma: APC→KRAS→p53 sequence
Crohn = "skip, transmural, granulomas, fistulae"; UC = "continuous, mucosal, crypt abscesses, cancer".
Non-caseating granulomas in the bowel wall favour:
- AUlcerative colitis
- BCrohn's disease
- CCoeliac disease
- DIschaemic colitis
Linear glomerular basement-membrane immunofluorescence is seen in:
- APost-streptococcal GN
- BAnti-GBM (Goodpasture) disease
- CMembranous nephropathy
- DFSGS
- UC = continuous, mucosal, crypt abscesses, ↑cancer.
- Crohn = skip, transmural, granulomas, fistulae.
- DIF = antibody on tissue; IIF = patient serum on substrate.
Rapid-revision topics from this paper: causes of dysphagia; malabsorption syndrome; classification of polyps (with 2 examples each); oesophageal carcinoma risk factors and complications; two pathways of colorectal cancer.
Causes of dysphagia: mechanical — carcinoma, peptic strictures, webs/rings, extrinsic compression; motility — achalasia, scleroderma, diffuse oesophageal spasm.
Malabsorption syndrome: impaired absorption of nutrients across the small-bowel mucosa; causes — coeliac disease, tropical sprue, Whipple's disease, chronic pancreatitis, Crohn's; features — steatorrhoea, weight loss, deficiency states.
Classification of polyps (2 examples each): non-neoplastic — hyperplastic (hyperplastic, inflammatory), hamartomatous (juvenile, Peutz–Jeghers); neoplastic — adenomatous (tubular, villous adenoma).
Oesophageal carcinoma: risk factors — smoking, alcohol, hot drinks, Barrett's oesophagus; complications — obstruction, tracheo-oesophageal fistula, haemorrhage, aspiration, metastasis.
Two pathways of colorectal cancer: (1) APC/β-catenin adenoma–carcinoma sequence (chromosomal-instability pathway); (2) microsatellite-instability pathway (DNA mismatch-repair defect / Lynch syndrome).
- A rapid-fire "list" question — bank marks by giving crisp, correctly-spelled named entities rather than long prose.
- Correct named entities for each stem
- Brief defining feature each
A key screening/tumour marker for hepatocellular carcinoma is:
- ACEA
- BAlpha-fetoprotein
- CCA-125
- DPSA
- Match each marker to its tumour precisely.
- Spell named lesions correctly for the mark.
Discuss peptic ulcers: a) causes; b) location of the ulcers; c) gross morphology; d) complications.
a) Causes: H. pylori infection; NSAIDs; gastric hyperacidity (e.g. Zollinger–Ellison syndrome); smoking; stress.
b) Location: first part of the duodenum (commonest); lesser curvature of the gastric antrum.
c) Gross morphology: small (usually <2 cm), round-to-oval, sharply "punched-out" defect with a clean base and smooth, non-heaped (regular) margins — in contrast to the heaped-up, irregular edges of malignant ulcers.
d) Complications: haemorrhage; perforation; penetration into adjacent organs; obstruction (pyloric stenosis); rare malignant transformation (gastric ulcers).
- Peptic ulceration = imbalance of mucosal defence (mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandins, blood flow) vs aggression (acid, pepsin, H. pylori, NSAIDs).
- Duodenal ulcer pain is relieved by food; gastric ulcer pain is worsened by food (→ weight loss).
- Posterior duodenal ulcers erode the gastroduodenal artery → brisk bleeding; anterior ulcers perforate.
- Defence vs aggression balance
- H. pylori and NSAID roles
- Gastric vs duodenal site/pain
- Complications: bleed, perforate, obstruct, malignancy
- Biopsy gastric ulcers
Ulcer complications → "POMB": Perforation, Obstruction, Malignancy (gastric), Bleeding.
Duodenal ulcer pain is classically:
- AWorsened by food
- BRelieved by food
- CUnrelated to meals
- DOnly nocturnal and constant
The artery most likely eroded by a bleeding posterior duodenal ulcer is the:
- ASplenic
- BGastroduodenal
- CLeft gastric
- DSuperior mesenteric
- Defence vs aggression imbalance = peptic ulcer.
- Duodenal: food relieves; gastric: food worsens.
- Posterior DU bleeds (GDA); anterior perforates.
Discuss peptic ulcer disease: definition, mucosal defence mechanisms, sites affected, clinical presentation and complications; contrast gastric versus duodenal ulcers.
Definition: a breach in the mucosa of the alimentary tract extending through the mucosa into the submucosa.
Mucosal defence (pre-epithelial barrier): a mucus–bicarbonate layer. Surface foveolar cells secrete mucin forming an "unstirred" protective layer that prevents direct contact of food particles and impedes diffusion of ions and pepsin. Surface epithelial cells secrete bicarbonate into the mucus, buffering luminal H⁺ and creating a pH gradient (≈1–2 at the luminal surface rising to 6–7 at the epithelial surface).
Sites: duodenal ulcer — first part of the duodenum (anterior > posterior); gastric ulcer — lesser curvature at the body/antrum border.
Clinical presentation: epigastric gnawing/burning pain, worse at night and 1–3 hours after meals; nausea, vomiting, bloating, belching, weight loss; referred back pain. Complications: haemorrhage; perforation; obstruction (oedema/scarring) with cramps, intractable vomiting or pain.
Gastroduodenal artery is the source of bleeding in duodenal ulcer; left gastric artery in gastric ulcer. Urea breath test confirms eradication of H. pylori.
| Feature | Gastric ulcer | Duodenal ulcer |
|---|---|---|
| Commonest site | Along the lesser curvature | First part of duodenum |
| Incidence | Less common | More common |
| Age | Beyond 6th decade, M>F | 25–50 years, M>F |
| H. pylori association | Less common | Strong association |
| Acid level | Usually normal | High |
| Pain vs antacids | Relief not consistent | Prompt relief |
| Pain vs food | Aggravates pain | Relieves pain |
| Night pain | Not observed | Common |
| Heartburn | Not common | Common |
| Haematemesis / melaena | Haematemesis more common | Melaena more common |
| Vomiting | Common | No vomiting |
| Weight loss | Present | Absent |
| Malignant change | Rarely undergoes malignant change | No malignant change |
- Mucosal defences: surface mucus + bicarbonate layer, prostaglandin-driven blood flow, epithelial regeneration.
- Give the classic gastric-vs-duodenal contrast as a table — examiners reward structure.
- 4 mucosal defence mechanisms
- Common ulcer sites
- H. pylori mechanism (urease, cytotoxins)
- Complications listed
- Prostaglandin/NSAID link
Defences → "MBPR": Mucus, Bicarbonate, Prostaglandins, Regeneration/blood flow.
NSAIDs cause peptic ulcers mainly by:
- ADirect acid secretion
- BInhibiting prostaglandin synthesis
- CStimulating gastrin
- DKilling H. pylori
H. pylori survives gastric acid chiefly by producing:
- ACatalase
- BUrease
- CCoagulase
- DLipase
- Defences: mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandins, blood flow.
- NSAIDs block protective prostaglandins.
- H. pylori urease neutralises acid.
A. Colon adenomas: (i) current classification of colonic adenomas (3); (ii) THREE risk factors for malignant transformation (3); (iii) TWO Familial Polyposis syndromes in which these adenomas are common (2); (iv) FOUR clinical features a patient may present with (4).
B. Carcinoma of the cervix under: (i) control using screening and vaccination (4); (ii) aetiology (2); (iii) pathogenesis (4); (iv) complications (3).
A. Colon adenomas
(i) Classification (WHO, by architecture):
- Tubular adenoma — >75% tubular glands; usually small and pedunculated (commonest)
- Villous adenoma — >50% villous/finger-like fronds; usually large and sessile; highest malignant potential
- Tubulovillous adenoma — mixed (25–75% villous)
- (Serrated group: sessile serrated lesion, traditional serrated adenoma). Graded by dysplasia: low- vs high-grade.)
(ii) Risk factors for malignant transformation: large size (>1–4 cm); villous architecture; high-grade dysplasia. (Also multiplicity, sessile shape.)
(iii) Familial polyposis syndromes: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP, APC mutation); Gardner syndrome (FAP variant). (Turcot syndrome also acceptable.)
(iv) Clinical features: often asymptomatic (found on screening); rectal bleeding / occult blood → iron-deficiency anaemia; change in bowel habit; mucous diarrhoea (villous adenoma → secretory losses, hypokalaemia); abdominal pain or obstruction if large.
B. Carcinoma of the cervix
(i) Control — screening & vaccination: screening detects and treats pre-invasive lesions (CIN) before invasion — Pap (cervical cytology), HPV DNA testing, and VIA (visual inspection with acetic acid) in low-resource settings; treat CIN with cryotherapy/LEEP. Vaccination against high-risk HPV (bivalent/quadrivalent/nonavalent covering types 16 & 18) given to girls ~9–14 yr before sexual debut.
(ii) Aetiology: persistent high-risk HPV infection (types 16 & 18 most important). Cofactors: multiple sexual partners, early coitarche, smoking, immunosuppression (HIV), high parity, other STIs.
(iii) Pathogenesis: HPV infects immature squamous/metaplastic cells of the transformation zone → viral integration → E6 oncoprotein degrades p53 and E7 inactivates Rb → loss of cell-cycle control, resistance to apoptosis, genomic instability → progressive dysplasia (CIN 1 → 2 → 3 / carcinoma in situ) → invasive squamous cell carcinoma once the basement membrane is breached.
(iv) Complications: vaginal haemorrhage; fistulae (vesicovaginal, rectovaginal); ureteric obstruction → hydronephrosis → renal failure/uraemia (common cause of death); direct spread to bladder/rectum/pelvic wall; lymphatic and haematogenous metastasis; recurrent infection.
(v) Clinical presentation (added; asked as a subheading in EOY 2016/17): often asymptomatic early or detected on screening; post-coital bleeding; intermenstrual or postmenopausal bleeding; blood-stained or foul-smelling vaginal discharge; later, pelvic or lower-back pain, urinary or bowel symptoms and leg oedema from local invasion, and features of distant metastasis.
- Adenoma malignant-risk triad = large size + villous architecture + high-grade dysplasia.
- Cervical carcinoma is driven by persistent high-risk HPV (16/18) at the transformation zone.
- Classify adenomas THREE ways (architecture, dysplasia grade, morphology). Give the HPV → CIN → invasion sequence for cervix.
- A large villous rectal adenoma can secrete K⁺-rich mucus → hypokalaemia (McKittrick-Wheelock).
- Adenoma classification (3 axes) + serrated
- Risk factors for malignant change
- Two polyposis syndromes (FAP, Gardner)
- Clinical features of adenomas
- Cervical ca: HPV, CIN grades, SCC
- Screening/prevention (Pap/HPV/VIA, vaccine)
Adenoma malignant risk → "SViD": Size, Villous, Dysplasia (high-grade).
The earliest genetic event in the colonic adenoma-carcinoma sequence is:
- AKRAS activation
- BAPC loss
- CTP53 loss
- DDCC loss
The principal cause of cervical squamous carcinoma is:
- AHSV-2
- BHigh-risk HPV (16/18)
- CEBV
- DHIV
- Adenoma risk = SViD (size, villous, dysplasia).
- APC first, then KRAS, then TP53.
- Cervical ca = HPV 16/18 at the transformation zone.
(a) Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features and morphologic features of coeliac sprue (13).
(b) Briefly discuss rheumatic heart disease under: (i) pathogenesis, (ii) gross morphology, (iii) complications (12).
(a) Coeliac sprue (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)
Pathogenesis: immune-mediated enteropathy triggered by gliadin (from gluten in wheat/barley/rye) in genetically predisposed individuals (HLA-DQ2/DQ8). Gliadin is deamidated by tissue transglutaminase (tTG) → presented to CD4+ T cells → Th1 response (IFN-γ) and CD8+ intraepithelial-lymphocyte-mediated epithelial injury; B-cell response produces anti-tTG, anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies. Net effect → villous atrophy and malabsorption.
Clinical features: chronic diarrhoea, steatorrhoea, bloating, weight loss, failure to thrive (children); malabsorption sequelae — iron/folate deficiency anaemia, osteopenia, bleeding (vit K); dermatitis herpetiformis (itchy vesicular rash). Adults may be silent/atypical.
Morphologic features (duodenal/proximal jejunal biopsy): villous atrophy (blunting/flattening), crypt hyperplasia, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes (>25/100 enterocytes), lamina-propria plasma-cell and lymphocyte infiltrate (Marsh grading). Reverses on a gluten-free diet.
(b) Rheumatic heart disease
(i) Pathogenesis: a sequela of rheumatic fever — an immune-mediated (type II hypersensitivity) reaction ~2–3 weeks after Group A β-haemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis. Molecular mimicry: antibodies and CD4+ T cells against streptococcal M protein cross-react with cardiac antigens (myosin, valve glycoproteins) → pancarditis.
(ii) Gross morphology: acute — small verrucae (vegetations) along valve closure lines; MacCallum plaques in the left atrium. Chronic — leaflet thickening, commissural fusion, shortened/fused chordae tendineae giving "fish-mouth"/"buttonhole" mitral stenosis; mitral valve most affected, then aortic. Microscopy: Aschoff bodies with Anitschkow ("caterpillar") cells.
(iii) Complications: valvular stenosis/regurgitation (esp. mitral stenosis) → left atrial enlargement, atrial fibrillation, mural thrombi and systemic embolism; congestive cardiac failure and pulmonary hypertension; infective endocarditis on deformed valves; sudden cardiac death.
- Coeliac disease: immune reaction to gliadin → villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes in the duodenum.
- Anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG) and anti-endomysial IgA; associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8 and dermatitis herpetiformis.
- Pair this with RHD: know Aschoff bodies and mitral stenosis (see the RHD card).
- Coeliac: gliadin immune reaction
- Villous atrophy + crypt hyperplasia + IELs
- tTG/endomysial antibodies, HLA-DQ2/8
- Malabsorption consequences
- RHD pathogenesis + morphology + complications
Coeliac triad → "VCI": Villous atrophy, Crypt hyperplasia, Intraepithelial lymphocytes.
The duodenal histology of coeliac disease shows:
- ANon-caseating granulomas
- BVillous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes
- CSignet-ring cells
- DCaseating granulomas
The most useful serological test for coeliac disease is:
- AAnti-mitochondrial antibody
- BAnti-tissue transglutaminase (IgA)
- CANCA
- DAnti-dsDNA
- Coeliac = villous atrophy + crypt hyperplasia + IELs.
- tTG/endomysial IgA; HLA-DQ2/DQ8.
- RHD: Aschoff bodies, mitral stenosis.
Hepatobiliary & Pancreas
2 SAQsAn elderly male presents with obstructive jaundice due to a pancreatic tumour.
a) Two hereditary and two non-hereditary risk factors for pancreatic carcinogenesis (4). b) Two gross and two microscopic features of pancreatic carcinoma (4). c) Two tumour markers useful in follow-up (2). d) Three microscopic features of alcoholic hepatitis (3).
a) Risk factors — Hereditary: family history of pancreatic cancer; hereditary breast/ovarian cancer (BRCA2 families). Non-hereditary: cigarette smoking; high-fat diet.
b) Pancreatic carcinoma — Gross: poorly circumscribed, grey-white firm masses; dense stromal fibrosis. Histology: perineural and angiolymphatic invasion; aggressive deeply infiltrating cell clusters.
c) Tumour markers: CA 19-9; CEA.
d) Alcoholic hepatitis: Mallory–Denk bodies; hepatocyte ballooning; neutrophilic infiltration; focal hepatocyte necrosis; fatty change.
- Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma most often arises in the head → painless obstructive jaundice + palpable gallbladder (Courvoisier).
- Alcoholic hepatitis: Mallory-Denk bodies, ballooned hepatocytes, neutrophils, perivenular fibrosis.
- Pancreatic ca marker CA 19-9; KRAS is the commonest driver mutation. Trousseau migratory thrombophlebitis is a classic paraneoplastic sign.
- Pancreatic ca site (head), spread, jaundice
- CA 19-9, KRAS, Courvoisier sign
- Alcoholic hepatitis histology (Mallory bodies, ballooning)
- Neutrophilic infiltrate, steatosis
- Progression to cirrhosis
Alcoholic hepatitis histology → "MSB-N": Mallory bodies, Steatosis, Ballooning, Neutrophils.
A painless obstructive jaundice with a palpable non-tender gallbladder (Courvoisier) suggests:
- AGallstones
- BPancreatic head carcinoma
- CViral hepatitis
- DGilbert syndrome
The cytoplasmic inclusion of alcoholic hepatitis is the:
- ACouncilman body
- BMallory-Denk body
- CPsammoma body
- DRussell body
- Pancreatic ca: head, painless jaundice, CA 19-9, KRAS.
- Courvoisier = palpable GB + painless jaundice = malignancy.
- Alcoholic hepatitis = Mallory bodies + ballooning + neutrophils.
Discuss acute pancreatitis under: 1) causes, 2) gross and microscopic pathology features, 3) complications.
1) Causes: gallstones and alcohol (commonest); also hypertriglyceridaemia; hypercalcaemia; trauma / post-ERCP; drugs; mumps and other infections; ischaemia.
2) Gross: oedematous, swollen pancreas; grey-white areas of parenchymal necrosis; chalky-white foci of fat necrosis (saponification); haemorrhage. Microscopic: enzymatic (proteolytic) necrosis of acinar parenchyma; fat necrosis with calcium (basophilic) deposits; acute neutrophilic inflammatory infiltrate; vascular thrombosis and haemorrhage.
3) Complications: pancreatic pseudocyst; abscess; ARDS; DIC; shock; hypocalcaemia; progression to chronic pancreatitis; diabetes mellitus.
- Acute pancreatitis = enzymatic autodigestion; gallstones and alcohol cause ~80%.
- Lipase is more specific than amylase.
- Grey-Turner (flank) and Cullen (periumbilical) bruising signal haemorrhagic/severe disease; watch for hypocalcaemia (saponification).
- Definition + autodigestion mechanism
- Causes (I GET SMASHED)
- ↑amylase/lipase (lipase specific)
- Fat necrosis, haemorrhage morphology
- Complications: pseudocyst, necrosis, ARDS, shock
Causes → "I GET SMASHED": Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion, Hyper-Ca/lipidaemia, ERCP, Drugs.
The more specific serum enzyme for acute pancreatitis is:
- AAmylase
- BLipase
- CALT
- DALP
Hypocalcaemia in severe acute pancreatitis is due to:
- AVitamin D excess
- BFat necrosis with calcium saponification
- CRenal failure alone
- DHyperparathyroidism
- Autodigestion; gallstones + alcohol ~80%.
- Lipase > amylase for specificity.
- Fat necrosis → hypocalcaemia; Grey-Turner/Cullen signs.
Respiratory System (RESP)
4 SAQsDescribe pulmonary emphysema under: i) clinical features (3), ii) morphologic classification (4), iii) gross features (3), iv) microscopic features (3).
i) Clinical: insidious progressive dyspnoea; cough and wheeze; significant weight loss; hyperventilation with reduced FEV1/FVC; recurrent infections.
ii) Classification: centriacinar (proximal acinus/respiratory bronchioles affected, distal spared); panacinar (uniform enlargement from respiratory bronchioles to alveoli); paraseptal (distal acinus involved, centre normal); paracicatricial (irregular, associated with scarring).
iii) Gross: pale voluminous lungs obscuring the heart (panacinar); deep-pink less-voluminous lungs (centriacinar); enlarged cystic air spaces forming bullae (paraseptal).
iv) Microscopic: dilation of air spaces and destruction of septal walls in the involved acinus.
- Emphysema = permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles with wall destruction (no fibrosis).
- Centriacinar = smoking (upper lobes); panacinar = α1-antitrypsin deficiency (lower lobes).
- Protease–antiprotease imbalance: elastase from neutrophils/macrophages unopposed by α1-antitrypsin.
- Definition (airspace destruction, no fibrosis)
- Centriacinar vs panacinar (site + cause)
- Protease-antiprotease mechanism
- α1-antitrypsin deficiency
- Clinical: pink puffer, barrel chest
Centriacinar = Cigarettes (upper); Panacinar = Protease deficiency, α1-AT (lower).
Panacinar emphysema is classically associated with:
- ASmoking
- BAlpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
- CCoal dust
- DAsthma
Emphysema is distinguished from chronic bronchitis by:
- AGoblet-cell hyperplasia
- BPermanent airspace enlargement with wall destruction
- CReid index increase
- DMucus gland hypertrophy
- Emphysema = airspace destruction, no fibrosis.
- Centriacinar = smoking (upper); panacinar = α1-AT (lower).
- Mechanism = protease–antiprotease imbalance.
Discuss secondary (post-primary) TB: a) clinical presentation; b) gross features; c) histological morphology.
a) Clinical presentation: chronic productive cough (± haemoptysis); low-grade fever and night sweats; weight loss; malaise.
b) Gross features: apical (upper-lobe) cavitary lesions; caseous necrosis; surrounding fibrosis and calcification; cavitation from liquefied caseous material.
c) Histological morphology: caseating granulomas — a central zone of caseous necrosis surrounded by epithelioid histiocytes, Langhans multinucleate giant cells and a rim of lymphocytes.
- Secondary (post-primary) TB reactivates at the lung apex (high O₂) → cavitating caseating granulomas.
- Ghon focus + hilar node = Ghon/Ranke complex of primary TB; apical cavitation with haemoptysis marks reactivation.
- Reactivation vs primary
- Apical location, cavitation
- Caseating granuloma, Langhans cells
- Clinical: cough, haemoptysis, weight loss
- Spread: miliary, bronchogenic
Secondary TB loves the Apex (Air-rich). Primary TB = Ghon focus mid/lower zones + node.
Secondary pulmonary tuberculosis characteristically localises to the:
- ALung bases
- BLung apices
- CPleura only
- DHilar nodes only
The Ghon complex refers to:
- AApical cavity
- BA parenchymal focus plus draining hilar lymph node
- CMiliary seeding
- DCaseous pneumonia
- Secondary TB = apical cavitation (reactivation).
- Ghon complex = focus + hilar node (primary).
- Caseation + Langhans cells throughout.
(a) (i) Define occupational disease (2); (ii) 4 major categories of occupational disease with an example each (4); (iii) 4 factors that contribute to occupational disease, with examples (4); (iv) 2 major causes of environmental disease, with examples (2).
(b) (i) Define pneumonia (2); (ii) clinical features of pneumonia (3); (iii) pathologic stages of pneumonia (8).
(a)(i) Definition: an occupational disease is a chronic ailment/pathological condition arising from exposure to hazards or risk factors in the workplace or occupational environment.
(ii) Categories + examples:
- Occupational lung disease (pneumoconioses) — silicosis (silica), asbestosis (asbestos), coal-worker's pneumoconiosis
- Occupational cancers — mesothelioma (asbestos), bladder cancer (aniline dyes), leukaemia (benzene)
- Occupational skin disease — contact dermatitis (chemicals)
- Occupational infections / poisoning — hepatitis B (health workers), lead poisoning (battery workers)
(iii) Contributing factors + examples: chemical agents (solvents, lead, mercury); physical agents (noise → deafness, radiation, vibration, heat); biological agents (TB, HBV in health workers); ergonomic/mechanical (repetitive strain, poor posture); host factors (age, pre-existing disease, lack of protective equipment).
(iv) Causes of environmental disease + examples: air pollution (particulate matter/smog, tobacco smoke → respiratory disease); water/soil chemical contamination (lead, arsenic, industrial effluent).
(b)(i) Definition: pneumonia is inflammation of the lung parenchyma (alveoli/interstitium), usually infective (bacterial, viral, fungal), producing consolidation.
(ii) Clinical features: fever/chills, productive cough (purulent/rusty sputum), pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea/tachypnoea, tachycardia; signs of consolidation (dullness to percussion, bronchial breathing, crepitations); cyanosis if severe.
(iii) Pathologic stages (lobar pneumonia):
| Stage | Timing | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Congestion | Day 1–2 | Heavy, red, boggy lung; vascular congestion, proteinaceous fluid, few neutrophils, many bacteria |
| Red hepatisation | Day 2–4 | Red, firm, airless (liver-like); alveoli packed with neutrophils, RBCs and fibrin |
| Grey hepatisation | Day 4–6 | Grey-brown, dry; RBCs disintegrate, persistent fibrinosuppurative exudate |
| Resolution | Day 8+ | Exudate enzymatically digested, resorbed/expectorated/organised; architecture restored |
- Pneumoconioses: silica → upper-lobe nodular fibrosis + ↑TB risk; asbestos → lower-lobe fibrosis, pleural plaques, mesothelioma; coal → macules/progressive massive fibrosis.
- Lobar pneumonia has 4 classic stages: congestion → red hepatisation → grey hepatisation → resolution.
- Named occupational lung diseases + agent
- Silica/asbestos/coal distinguishing features
- Pneumonia: lobar vs bronchopneumonia
- 4 stages of lobar pneumonia
- Commonest organism (pneumococcus)
Lobar pneumonia stages → "CRGR": Congestion, Red hepatisation, Grey hepatisation, Resolution.
Asbestos exposure is most specifically linked to:
- AUpper-lobe nodules
- BPleural plaques and mesothelioma
- CEmphysema
- DBronchial asthma
The commonest organism in lobar pneumonia is:
- AKlebsiella
- BStreptococcus pneumoniae
- CMycoplasma
- DStaphylococcus aureus
- Silica → upper lobes + ↑TB; asbestos → lower lobes + mesothelioma.
- Lobar pneumonia = 4 stages, pneumococcus.
- Coal → PMF.
b) Outline the types of chronic obstructive airway diseases (4). Describe the causes, types, gross and microscopic features of bronchiectasis (6).
Types of chronic obstructive airway disease: chronic bronchitis; emphysema; bronchial asthma; bronchiectasis; (small-airway disease / bronchiolitis).
Bronchiectasis
Causes: bronchial obstruction (tumour, foreign body, mucus plugging); severe or recurrent infection (childhood measles, pertussis, TB, necrotising pneumonia); congenital / hereditary (cystic fibrosis, primary ciliary dyskinesia / Kartagener syndrome, immunodeficiency); allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis; connective-tissue disease.
Types: localised (obstructive) versus diffuse; morphologically cylindrical, varicose, or saccular / cystic.
Gross: permanent dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles, most severe in the lower lobes; airways dilated up to four times normal and traceable almost out to the pleura; lumina filled with mucopurulent secretions.
Microscopic: intense acute and chronic inflammation of the bronchial and bronchiolar walls with desquamation and ulceration of the lining epithelium; squamous metaplasia of residual epithelium; fibrosis of the wall and peribronchiolar tissue; abscess formation in chronic cases.
- COPD = chronic bronchitis (productive cough ≥3 months/yr for 2 yrs; ↑Reid index) ± emphysema.
- Bronchiectasis = permanent bronchial dilatation from chronic infection/obstruction → copious purulent sputum.
- Bronchiectasis classically follows severe infection, CF, or obstruction; complications include haemoptysis and clubbing.
- COPD definition (bronchitis + emphysema)
- Reid index / mucus gland hypertrophy
- Bronchiectasis: dilatation, causes
- Purulent sputum, clubbing, haemoptysis
- Complications
Bronchiectasis causes → "CIA": Cystic fibrosis, Infection (post-TB/pneumonia), Abstruction/allergic (ABPA).
Chronic bronchitis is defined clinically as a productive cough for at least:
- A1 month per year for 1 year
- B3 months per year for 2 consecutive years
- C6 months once
- DAny chronic cough
The hallmark of bronchiectasis is:
- AAlveolar-wall destruction
- BPermanent abnormal bronchial dilatation
- CNon-caseating granulomas
- DPleural plaques
- Chronic bronchitis = cough ≥3 mo/yr × 2 yrs; ↑Reid index.
- Bronchiectasis = permanent bronchial dilatation.
- Bronchiectasis → clubbing, haemoptysis, purulent sputum.
Breast Pathology
2 SAQsDuring breast-cancer awareness month, a 40-year-old female presented with a 5 cm left breast lump suspicious for cancer. Discuss under: (a) differential diagnosis, (b) risk factors, (c) diagnostic routine and specialised lab tests.
a) Differential diagnosis
- Benign: fibroadenoma; phyllodes tumour (consider for a large or rapidly growing lump); breast cyst; fat necrosis; breast abscess
- Malignant: invasive ductal carcinoma (NST, commonest); invasive lobular carcinoma; carcinoma with Paget's disease; medullary and mucinous carcinoma
b) Risk factors
- Age (40) and female sex
- Genetic mutations such as BRCA1
- Obesity
- Positive family history
- Early menarche
c) Diagnostic routine & specialised tests
- Routine: fine-needle aspiration biopsy; core biopsy; excision biopsy
- Specialised: ancillary IHC prognostic markers; radio-imaging for metastases
- A discrete breast lump in a 40-year-old needs triple assessment: clinical exam + imaging (mammogram/USS) + core biopsy.
- Benign vs malignant clues: fibroadenoma = mobile, well-defined, young; carcinoma = hard, irregular, fixed, ± skin tethering/nipple change.
- DDx: fibroadenoma, cyst, carcinoma, fat necrosis
- Risk factors for breast ca
- Triple assessment components
- Investigations (mammo/USS/biopsy)
- Hormone-receptor/HER2 mention
Breast ca risk → "AGE-BRCA": Age, Genetics (BRCA), Estrogen exposure (early menarche/late menopause, nulliparity, HRT).
Triple assessment of a breast lump comprises clinical examination, imaging and:
- ASerum CA 15-3
- BCore needle biopsy
- CChest X-ray
- DBone scan
Which feature most suggests malignancy in a breast lump?
- AMobile and well-defined
- BHard, irregular and fixed with skin tethering
- CTender and fluctuant
- DBilateral and cyclical
- Breast lump → triple assessment (exam + imaging + biopsy).
- Fibroadenoma = young, mobile; carcinoma = hard, fixed.
- Risk: age, BRCA, oestrogen exposure.
Discuss breast cancer: a) risk factors; b) classification of histological subtypes; c) laboratory diagnosis and tumour marker; d) clinical presentation.
a) Risk factors: female sex and increasing age; BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations; positive family history; early menarche / late menopause; nulliparity; obesity; prolonged oestrogen exposure.
b) Histological subtypes: in situ — DCIS, LCIS; invasive — invasive ductal carcinoma (NST, commonest), invasive lobular, medullary, mucinous and tubular carcinoma.
c) Laboratory diagnosis & tumour markers: triple assessment — clinical exam, imaging (mammography/ultrasound), FNAC/core biopsy; receptor status ER/PR and HER2 and Ki-67 on histology; CA 15-3 for follow-up.
d) Clinical presentation: painless hard breast lump; nipple retraction or bloody discharge; skin dimpling / peau d'orange; axillary lymphadenopathy.
- Invasive ductal (NST) carcinoma is commonest; invasive lobular is E-cadherin-negative and grows in single-file lines.
- Prognosis/therapy hinges on ER, PR and HER2 status; triple-negative carries the worst prognosis.
- Types: ductal (NST) vs lobular
- Spread: lymphatic (axillary nodes) first
- ER/PR/HER2 receptors
- Grading (Nottingham) / staging
- Risk factors
Receptors to request → "EPH": ER, PR, HER2.
The commonest histological type of invasive breast carcinoma is:
- ALobular
- BDuctal (no special type)
- CMedullary
- DMucinous
Loss of E-cadherin with single-file 'Indian file' infiltration is typical of:
- ADuctal carcinoma
- BLobular carcinoma
- CPaget disease
- DPhyllodes tumour
- Ductal (NST) commonest; lobular = E-cadherin-negative, single-file.
- First spread = axillary nodes.
- Check ER/PR/HER2.
Reproductive System
5 SAQsA 35-year-old female, 12 weeks amenorrhoea; uterus enlarged to 20 weeks; passing grape-like vesicles; blood/urine hCG elevated beyond normal pregnancy.
a) Provisional diagnosis. b) Gross and microscopic picture. c) Two common complications.
a) Hydatidiform mole (grape-like vesicles + markedly elevated hCG).
b) Thin-walled mass with "grape-like" vesicles; swollen oedematous villi. Microscopy: villi enlarged with central cavitation; complete mole — villi covered by trophoblastic proliferation; partial mole — only a fraction of villi enlarged with normal-appearing proliferation.
c) Complications: invasive mole; choriocarcinoma (about 2% of complete moles); persistent gestational trophoblastic disease; theca-lutein cysts; early pre-eclampsia and hyperthyroidism.
Karyotype: complete mole is diploid 46XX, entirely androgenetic, with no fetal parts and diffuse trophoblast proliferation; partial mole is triploid (69XXY), with fetal parts and focal proliferation.
- Hydatidiform mole = abnormal trophoblastic proliferation; complete mole (46XX, all paternal) carries the choriocarcinoma risk.
- Big-for-dates uterus, hyperemesis, very high β-hCG and a "snowstorm" ultrasound with no fetal heart.
- Complete vs partial mole (genetics)
- β-hCG levels
- USS "snowstorm", grape-like villi
- Malignant potential (choriocarcinoma)
- Follow-up with serial β-hCG
Complete mole = Cancer risk (choriocarcinoma), all paternal, no fetus.
A complete hydatidiform mole is genetically:
- ATriploid (69)
- BDiploid 46XX, entirely paternal
- CHaploid
- DTrisomic 21
The tumour marker used to monitor molar pregnancy is:
- AAFP
- Bβ-hCG
- CCA-125
- DCEA
- Complete mole = 46XX paternal, no fetus, ↑↑β-hCG, cancer risk.
- Partial = triploid, fetal parts.
- Follow with serial β-hCG.
Briefly describe the WHO classification of testicular tumours.
1. Germ-cell tumours derived from GCNIS (germ cell neoplasia in situ; most common, young adults): seminoma; embryonal carcinoma; post-pubertal yolk-sac tumour; choriocarcinoma; post-pubertal teratoma; mixed germ-cell tumours.
2. Germ-cell tumours NOT derived from GCNIS: spermatocytic tumour (older men, indolent; the modern WHO no longer classes this as a seminoma); prepubertal-type teratoma and yolk-sac tumour.
3. Sex cord-stromal tumours: Leydig-cell; Sertoli-cell; granulosa-cell.
4. Mixed germ-cell/sex-cord-stromal: gonadoblastoma.
5. Haematolymphoid: lymphoma (commonest testicular tumour in men over 60).
Modern WHO backbone: split germ-cell tumours into GCNIS-derived versus non-GCNIS-derived. Spermatocytic tumour and gonadoblastoma were misplaced in the original card.
- Germ-cell tumours (~95%) split into seminoma (radiosensitive, good prognosis) and non-seminomatous (embryonal, yolk sac, choriocarcinoma, teratoma).
- Markers: AFP (yolk sac), β-hCG (choriocarcinoma), both/either in mixed NSGCT; pure seminoma is AFP-negative.
- WHO: germ-cell vs sex-cord/stromal
- Seminoma vs non-seminomatous
- Named subtypes
- Tumour markers (AFP, β-hCG, LDH)
- Cryptorchidism risk factor
Markers → "AFP = yolk sac; hCG = choriocarcinoma; seminoma = neither."
A raised serum AFP in a testicular germ-cell tumour indicates a:
- APure seminoma
- BYolk-sac (non-seminomatous) component
- CLeydig-cell tumour
- DLymphoma
The strongest risk factor for testicular germ-cell tumours is:
- AVasectomy
- BCryptorchidism
- CVaricocele
- DTrauma
- Germ-cell = seminoma vs non-seminomatous.
- AFP = yolk sac; β-hCG = choriocarcinoma.
- Cryptorchidism is the key risk factor.
Abnormal placentation is postulated as the cause of eclampsia. Discuss: a) pathogenesis of abnormal placentation leading to pre-eclampsia; b) microvascular features; c) list five organs affected by pre-eclampsia and, for each, the expected gross and histopathological features.
a) Pathogenesis of abnormal placentation: failure of the second wave of trophoblastic invasion → maternal spiral arteries retain their muscular walls and remain narrow, high-resistance vessels (inadequate remodelling) → placental hypoperfusion/ischaemia → release of anti-angiogenic factors (sFlt-1, soluble endoglin) → systemic maternal endothelial dysfunction → hypertension, proteinuria and oedema.
b) Microvascular features: endothelial cell swelling; fibrinoid necrosis of vessel walls; "acute atherosis" (lipid-laden macrophages in the wall of decidual/spiral arteries); thrombosis and reduced luminal diameter.
c) Organs affected (gross / histology):
- Placenta: infarcts, retroplacental haematoma / increased syncytial knots, villous ischaemia.
- Kidney: swollen / glomerular endotheliosis (swollen endothelial cells occluding capillary lumina).
- Liver: subcapsular haemorrhage / periportal fibrin deposition, haemorrhage and necrosis.
- Brain: oedema and petechial haemorrhages / fibrinoid necrosis of vessels, microinfarcts.
- Heart: petechial haemorrhages / subendocardial necrosis.
- Pre-eclampsia stems from defective spiral-artery remodelling → placental ischaemia → anti-angiogenic factors (sFlt-1↑, PlGF↓) → maternal endothelial dysfunction.
- New hypertension + proteinuria after 20 weeks; HELLP and eclampsia are severe complications.
- Abnormal (shallow) trophoblast invasion
- Failure of spiral-artery remodelling
- Placental ischaemia → anti-angiogenic imbalance
- Endothelial dysfunction → hypertension/proteinuria
- Complications: HELLP, eclampsia, IUGR
Pre-eclampsia triad (old) → "HOP": Hypertension, Oedema, Proteinuria (after 20 weeks).
The core placental abnormality in pre-eclampsia is:
- AExcessive trophoblast invasion
- BFailure of spiral-artery remodelling with shallow invasion
- CPlacenta praevia
- DVelamentous cord insertion
Pre-eclampsia is defined by new-onset hypertension plus proteinuria after:
- A12 weeks
- B20 weeks
- C28 weeks
- DDelivery
- Shallow trophoblast invasion → placental ischaemia.
- sFlt-1↑, PlGF↓ → endothelial dysfunction.
- HTN + proteinuria after 20 weeks; HELLP/eclampsia.
Discuss Wilms tumour: a) age of presentation; b) clinical presentation; c) gross and histological features; d) associated genetic abnormality.
a) Age: peak 2–5 years (children under 5).
b) Clinical presentation: large, unilateral abdominal/flank mass; haematuria; hypertension; abdominal pain; occasionally fever.
c) Gross: large, solitary, well-circumscribed, soft tan-grey mass with areas of necrosis/haemorrhage. Histology: classically triphasic — blastemal (sheets of small blue cells), epithelial (abortive tubules and glomeruli) and stromal components.
d) Genetic abnormality: WT1 gene mutation on chromosome 11p13; associated syndromes — WAGR, Denys–Drash, Beckwith–Wiedemann.
- Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma) is the commonest childhood renal tumour (2–5 yr); classic triphasic histology: blastema, epithelial (tubules), stroma.
- Presents as a large abdominal mass; WT1 gene; associations WAGR, Denys-Drash, Beckwith-Wiedemann.
- Age group (2–5 yr)
- Triphasic histology
- WT1 gene / syndromic associations
- Abdominal mass presentation
- Good prognosis with treatment
Wilms histology → "BES": Blastema, Epithelial tubules, Stroma (triphasic).
The classic histology of Wilms tumour is:
- ASmall round blue cells only
- BTriphasic: blastema, epithelial and stromal
- CClear cells with vascular stroma
- DPapillary with psammoma bodies
Wilms tumour is associated with mutation of:
- ARB1
- BWT1
- CVHL
- DAPC
- Wilms = commonest childhood renal tumour (2–5 yr).
- Triphasic: blastema + epithelial + stroma.
- WT1; WAGR/Denys-Drash/Beckwith-Wiedemann.
1a) Four risk factors for cervical cancer (4); common histologic type (1); primary and secondary prevention modalities. 1b) A 65-year-old female with a solitary thyroid nodule — screening and laboratory tests; differential diagnosis; histologic features of papillary thyroid carcinoma and route of spread. 1c) Gross morphologic changes of benign nodular prostatic enlargement (5).
1a) Cervical cancer: risk factors — HPV 16/18 infection, early sexual debut, multiple sexual partners, smoking, immunosuppression (HIV). Common histologic type — squamous cell carcinoma. Prevention — primary: HPV vaccination, barrier contraception; secondary: Pap-smear / VIA screening, HPV-DNA testing.
1b) Solitary thyroid nodule: screening/labs — TSH and free T4/T3, thyroid ultrasound, FNAC, radioisotope scan. DDx — colloid nodule, follicular adenoma, papillary carcinoma, thyroid cyst. Papillary carcinoma histology — branching papillae with fibrovascular cores; "Orphan-Annie-eye" clear/ground-glass nuclei; nuclear grooves and pseudo-inclusions; psammoma bodies. Spread — lymphatic (to cervical nodes).
1c) Benign nodular prostatic enlargement (gross): enlarged prostate (mainly transitional zone); nodular, firm, rubbery cut surface; compression/narrowing of the prostatic urethra; may show cystic spaces exuding milky fluid.
- Three separate topics: cervical cancer (HPV), thyroid nodule (mostly benign; papillary is commonest malignancy), prostatic enlargement (BPH transition zone vs cancer peripheral zone).
- Papillary thyroid ca: Orphan-Annie nuclei, nuclear grooves, psammoma bodies. Prostate ca marker = PSA; arises peripherally.
- Cervical ca: HPV, CIN, screening
- Thyroid nodule work-up (FNAC, TFTs)
- Papillary thyroid ca features
- BPH (transition zone) vs prostate ca (peripheral)
- PSA and DRE
Prostate zones → "BPH = Transition; Cancer = Peripheral."
Benign prostatic hyperplasia arises mainly in the ____ zone, whereas carcinoma arises in the ____ zone:
- APeripheral; transition
- BTransition; peripheral
- CCentral; anterior
- DAnterior; central
The commonest malignancy in a solitary thyroid nodule is:
- AFollicular carcinoma
- BPapillary carcinoma
- CMedullary carcinoma
- DAnaplastic carcinoma
- Cervical ca = HPV; screen and vaccinate.
- Papillary thyroid ca: Orphan-Annie nuclei, psammoma bodies.
- BPH = transition zone; prostate ca = peripheral zone.
Central Nervous System (CNS)
9 SAQsDiscuss CNS tuberculous infections under: a) forms of CNS TB, b) gross and microscopic features of TB meningitis, c) CSF features, d) diagnosis of TB meningitis.
a) Forms: tuberculous meningitis; parenchymal tuberculoma (mass lesion); Pott's disease (spinal/vertebral TB).
b) Thick yellow exudate especially above the optic chiasm and around cranial nerves; tuberculomas and tuberculous granulomas. Microscopy: granulomas with a caseating core surrounded by epithelioid histiocytes (from macrophages that engulfed M. tuberculosis).
c) CSF: clear, forms webs on standing; raised protein; raised leukocytes (predominantly lymphocytes, unlike pyogenic bacteria); low glucose; raised intracranial pressure.
d) Diagnosis: CSF for ZN (acid-fast) or auramine stain and mycobacterial culture; nucleic-acid amplification (GeneXpert MTB/RIF) for rapid diagnosis and rifampicin resistance; CSF adenosine deaminase (ADA) as an adjunct. Gram stain does not demonstrate M. tuberculosis.
- CNS TB → basal meningitis (thick basal exudate), tuberculomas, and cranial-nerve palsies; caseating granulomas throughout.
- CSF: lymphocytosis, high protein, low glucose, ↑opening pressure, a fibrin web on standing.
- Routes of CNS TB spread
- Basal meningitis, tuberculoma
- Cranial nerve palsies, hydrocephalus
- CSF picture (lymphocytic, low glucose)
- Caseating granuloma morphology
TB meningitis CSF → "Low glucose, High protein, Lymphocytes, High pressure."
Tuberculous meningitis characteristically involves the:
- AConvexity of the cerebrum
- BBase of the brain
- CCerebellum only
- DSpinal cord only
The CSF in tuberculous meningitis typically shows:
- ANeutrophils, low protein
- BLymphocytes, high protein, low glucose
- CNormal findings
- DEosinophilia
- CNS TB = basal meningitis + tuberculomas.
- CSF: lymphocytic, high protein, low glucose.
- Cranial nerve palsies + hydrocephalus.
a) Define cerebrovascular disease (2). b) Classify with causation percentages (7). c) Three gross and three microscopic features of hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy (6).
a) Injury or pathology to the vascular system supplying the brain that alters its normal function.
b) Classification — Ischaemic stroke: large-artery atherosclerosis (~30%); cardiac embolism (~20–30%); small-vessel disease (~20%); remainder from dissection, vasculitis, hypercoagulable states. Haemorrhagic stroke: intracerebral haemorrhage (~70%); subarachnoid haemorrhage (~30%).
c) Gross: infarcted areas; swelling/oedema; haemorrhage. Microscopic: neuronal injury; gliosis; red neurons; chromatolysis.
- Ischaemic stroke (~85%) → liquefactive necrosis; haemorrhagic (~15%) → hypertensive basal-ganglia bleed or aneurysmal SAH.
- Evolution: red (dying) neurons (12–24 h) → neutrophils → macrophages/gliosis → cystic cavity.
- Global hypoxic-ischaemic injury hits watershed zones and vulnerable neurons: hippocampal CA1, Purkinje cells, cortical layers 3/5/6.
- Ischaemic vs haemorrhagic mechanisms
- Liquefactive necrosis, temporal evolution
- HIE: watershed + selective vulnerability
- Charcot-Bouchard / berry aneurysms
- Complications: oedema, herniation
Neuronal evolution → "Red neurons → Neutrophils → Macrophages → Gliosis."
The type of necrosis in a cerebral infarct is:
- ACoagulative
- BLiquefactive
- CCaseous
- DFat
Hypertensive intracerebral haemorrhage most often occurs in the:
- ACerebellar cortex
- BBasal ganglia (putamen)
- CFrontal pole
- DBrainstem tectum
- Infarct = liquefactive necrosis; red neurons first.
- Hypertensive bleed = basal ganglia (Charcot-Bouchard).
- HIE → watershed + selectively vulnerable neurons.
A 36-year-old woman with 18 months of worsening headaches that increase with her menstrual cycle; memory problems and emotional outbursts. Imaging: dural-based benign tumour.
a) Most likely diagnosis and location (2). b) Two gross and two microscopic features (4). c) Three clinical presentations and three brain findings indicating raised ICP (6).
a) Meningioma — dural-based benign tumour.
b) Gross: well-defined, lobulated, attached to dura mater. Microscopy: whorls of cells; psammoma bodies (calcifications); spindle-shaped cells.
c) Presentations: severe headaches; vomiting; visual disturbances. Brain findings: papilloedema; herniation of brain structures; hydrocephalus.
- Meningioma: benign, dural-based, extra-axial; whorls + psammoma bodies; slow growth causes mass effect and raised ICP.
- Raised ICP: morning headache, vomiting, papilloedema, ↓GCS; Cushing triad (↑BP, bradycardia, irregular breathing) is late.
- Meningioma origin (arachnoid cap cells)
- Histology: whorls, psammoma bodies
- Raised ICP features
- Monro-Kellie doctrine
- Herniation syndromes
Cushing triad → "↑BP, ↓HR, irregular breathing" = late raised ICP.
Meningiomas arise from:
- AAstrocytes
- BArachnoid cap (meningothelial) cells
- COligodendrocytes
- DEpendymal cells
A classic histological feature of meningioma is:
- ARosenthal fibres
- BPsammoma bodies and cellular whorls
- CPseudopalisading necrosis
- DPerivascular pseudorosettes
- Meningioma = dural, extra-axial, benign; whorls + psammoma bodies.
- Raised ICP: AM headache, vomiting, papilloedema.
- Cushing triad is a late sign.
a) With examples, give the aetiological classification of meningitis (5). b) Describe tuberculous meningitis under i) gross morphology, ii) microscopic findings, iii) CSF findings (10).
a) Classification: viral (e.g. enteroviruses); fungal (e.g. Cryptococcus neoformans); parasitic (e.g. Taenia solium); bacterial (e.g. Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae); non-infective (e.g. malignant).
b) TB meningitis — Gross: ventricular dilatation from raised ICP and CSF obstruction; thickened meninges (exudates, granulomas); brain atrophy. (Microscopic and CSF findings continue in the source — caseating granulomas; lymphocytic CSF with high protein, low glucose.)
- Classify meningitis by cause (bacterial/viral/TB/fungal) and read the CSF: cells, glucose, protein separate them.
- Reproduce the CSF table. Bacterial = neutrophils, ↓↓glucose, ↑↑protein, turbid; TB = lymphocytes, ↓glucose, ↑↑↑protein.
- Classification by aetiology
- CSF findings per type (table)
- Age-related organisms
- TB meningitis specifics
- Complications: hydrocephalus, palsies
Bacterial CSF → "NLP-T": Neutrophils, Low glucose, high Protein, Turbid.
Bacterial meningitis CSF typically shows:
- ALymphocytes, normal glucose
- BNeutrophils, low glucose, high protein
- CEosinophils
- DNormal CSF
The commonest cause of neonatal bacterial meningitis is:
- ANeisseria meningitidis
- BGroup B Streptococcus / E. coli
- CStreptococcus pneumoniae
- DHaemophilus influenzae
- Bacterial: neutrophils, ↓↓glucose, ↑↑protein.
- Viral: lymphocytes, normal glucose.
- TB: lymphocytes, ↓glucose, ↑↑↑protein, fibrin web.
2a) Morphology of traumatic brain injuries: (i) contusions and lacerations (4); (ii) intracranial haemorrhages (4); (iii) diffuse axonal injury (3); (iv) diffuse vascular injury (2). 2b) Neoplastic conditions of the thyroid: (i) histologic types (6); (ii) gross and histopathologic features of papillary thyroid carcinoma (6).
Marking scheme excerpts: Contusion — superficial haemorrhagic bruises on the brain. Lacerations — tears in brain parenchyma associated with fractures. Intracranial haemorrhages — extradural/epidural (between skull and dura, with skull fractures), subdural (between dura and brain, from torn bridging veins), subarachnoid and intracerebral. Diffuse axonal injury — from acceleration–deceleration forces, seen microscopically. Diffuse vascular injury — haemorrhagic spots around vessels.
2b(i) Histologic types of thyroid neoplasms: benign - follicular adenoma; malignant - papillary carcinoma (commonest, ~80%), follicular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma (parafollicular C cells, secretes calcitonin), and anaplastic (undifferentiated) carcinoma (elderly, highly aggressive); also thyroid lymphoma.
Papillary thyroid carcinoma — Gross: focal, cystic, solid, calcified lesion. Microscopic: papillae, psammoma bodies, ground-glass ("Orphan Annie") nuclei, nuclear features.
- TBI: coup/contrecoup contusions; extradural (arterial, middle meningeal, lucid interval, lens-shape) vs subdural (bridging veins, crescent, elderly/alcoholic).
- Diffuse axonal injury = shearing of white-matter tracts; axonal swellings (spheroids) on silver/APP stain.
- Contusion coup/contrecoup
- Extradural vs subdural haematoma
- Diffuse axonal injury
- Thyroid neoplasm types (see p89 card)
- Complications: herniation
Extradural = Egg-shaped (lens), arterial, lucid interval; Subdural = Sickle (crescent), venous, elderly.
An extradural haematoma with a lucid interval usually results from rupture of the:
- ABridging veins
- BMiddle meningeal artery
- CCavernous sinus
- DVein of Galen
A crescent-shaped haematoma from torn bridging veins in an elderly patient is a:
- AExtradural haematoma
- BSubdural haematoma
- CSubarachnoid haemorrhage
- DIntraventricular bleed
- Extradural = arterial, lens, lucid interval (MMA).
- Subdural = venous, crescent, elderly (bridging veins).
- DAI = white-matter shearing, axonal spheroids.
2a) Define cerebrovascular disease (2). 2b) Five modifiable stroke risk factors (5). 2c) Haemorrhagic stroke — clinical presentation (1), causation (4). 2d) Gross and microscopic features of the four pathologic stages of lobar pneumonia (13).
2a) Cerebrovascular disease: brain dysfunction resulting from an abnormality of its blood supply — ischaemic or haemorrhagic.
2b) Modifiable stroke risk factors: hypertension; smoking; diabetes mellitus; hyperlipidaemia; obesity/physical inactivity; atrial fibrillation.
2c) Haemorrhagic stroke: presentation — sudden severe headache, vomiting, focal neurological deficit and reduced consciousness. Causation — hypertension (rupture of Charcot–Bouchard microaneurysms); ruptured berry aneurysm; arteriovenous malformation; cerebral amyloid angiopathy; anticoagulation.
2d) Four stages of lobar pneumonia:
- Congestion: heavy, red, boggy lung; vascular congestion, alveolar oedema fluid, scattered neutrophils and many bacteria.
- Red hepatization: red, firm, airless liver-like lobe; alveoli packed with neutrophils, red cells and fibrin.
- Grey hepatization: greyish-brown, dry surface; red cells disintegrate leaving a persistent fibrinosuppurative exudate.
- Resolution: exudate enzymatically digested and resorbed or coughed up; normal architecture restored.
- Pair cerebrovascular disease (ischaemic vs haemorrhagic) with lobar pneumonia (pneumococcal, 4 stages).
- For lobar pneumonia give the 4 stages and the commonest organism; for stroke give the necrosis type and evolution.
- Stroke types + necrosis
- Lobar pneumonia 4 stages
- Commonest organism (pneumococcus)
- Complications of each
- Clinical correlation
Lobar pneumonia stages → "CRGR": Congestion, Red hep, Grey hep, Resolution.
The second stage of lobar pneumonia, with a firm red congested lung full of neutrophils and RBCs, is:
- ACongestion
- BRed hepatisation
- CGrey hepatisation
- DResolution
Cerebral infarction produces which type of necrosis?
- ACoagulative
- BLiquefactive
- CCaseous
- DFibrinoid
- Lobar pneumonia = 4 stages (CRGR), pneumococcus.
- Stroke: ischaemic (liquefactive) vs haemorrhagic.
- Red hepatisation = RBCs + neutrophils + fibrin.
Discuss glial tumours: histological subtypes, WHO grading, clinical features and complications.
Histological subtypes (gliomas — most common primary brain tumours): astrocytomas; oligodendrogliomas; ependymomas.
Clinical features: headaches, seizures; posterior-fossa ependymomas present with hydrocephalus from obstruction. Complications: brain haemorrhage; brain herniation; coma.
| WHO grade | Astrocytoma | Oligodendroglioma |
|---|---|---|
| Grade I (circumscribed) | Pilocytic astrocytoma | — |
| Grade II | Diffuse astrocytoma | Oligodendroglioma |
Modern WHO 2021 CNS classification is molecularly integrated: adult diffuse gliomas are grouped as IDH-mutant astrocytoma (grades 2 to 4), IDH-mutant 1p/19q-codeleted oligodendroglioma (grades 2 to 3), and glioblastoma (IDH-wildtype, grade 4). Pilocytic astrocytoma is grade 1 (KIAA1549-BRAF fusion). Grade may be assigned on molecular features alone, e.g. CDKN2A/B homozygous deletion denotes grade 4.
- Gliomas: astrocytoma (grades I–IV; IV = glioblastoma), oligodendroglioma, ependymoma. WHO grade rises with atypia, mitoses, necrosis, vascular proliferation.
- GBM: pseudopalisading necrosis + microvascular proliferation, crosses the midline ("butterfly"). Molecular: IDH, 1p/19q co-deletion (oligodendroglioma), MGMT.
- Glial tumour classification
- WHO grading criteria
- GBM histology
- Oligodendroglioma (fried-egg, 1p/19q)
- Ependymoma (perivascular pseudorosettes)
Grade drivers → "AMEN": Atypia, Mitoses, Endothelial (vascular) proliferation, Necrosis.
Pseudopalisading necrosis and microvascular proliferation define:
- APilocytic astrocytoma
- BGlioblastoma (WHO grade IV)
- COligodendroglioma
- DEpendymoma
The 1p/19q co-deletion is characteristic of:
- AGlioblastoma
- BOligodendroglioma
- CMeningioma
- DMedulloblastoma
- Glioma grade rises with atypia/mitoses/necrosis/vascular proliferation.
- GBM = pseudopalisading necrosis, butterfly spread.
- Oligodendroglioma = fried-egg cells, 1p/19q.
b) i) Define raised intracranial pressure (2). ii) List four features seen on a brain with features of raised intracranial pressure (8).
i) Definition: a sustained rise in the pressure inside the cranial cavity above the normal range (adult, supine roughly 7 to 15 mmHg), occurring when the volume of brain, CSF, blood or a mass lesion increases within the rigid non-expansile skull (Monro-Kellie doctrine), once compensatory mechanisms are exhausted.
ii) Four features on the brain:
- Flattening and widening of the gyri with narrowing of the sulci
- Cerebral oedema: a heavy, swollen brain with compressed/slit-like ventricles
- Herniation syndromes: subfalcine (cingulate), transtentorial (uncal), and tonsillar (cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum)
- Secondary (Duret) haemorrhages in the midbrain and pons from downward brainstem displacement
(Also acceptable: papilloedema at the optic disc, hydrocephalus.)
- Raised ICP: sustained ICP >20 mmHg; Monro-Kellie means a mass must displace CSF/blood or ICP rises steeply.
- Uncal (transtentorial) herniation → ipsilateral CN III palsy (fixed dilated pupil); tonsillar herniation → brainstem compression and death.
- Definition of raised ICP
- Monro-Kellie doctrine
- Causes
- Herniation syndromes
- Brain features: oedema, papilloedema, herniation
Herniations → "SUT": Subfalcine, Uncal (CN III), Tonsillar (fatal).
Uncal (transtentorial) herniation classically compresses cranial nerve:
- AII
- BIII
- CVI
- DVII
The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that within the rigid skull the sum of which volumes is constant?
- ABrain, blood and CSF
- BBrain and CSF only
- CBlood and CSF only
- DGrey and white matter
- Raised ICP = sustained >20 mmHg.
- Monro-Kellie: brain + blood + CSF fixed.
- Uncal herniation → CN III palsy; tonsillar → death.
a) List two common aetiological microorganisms each for bacterial, viral and fungal meningitis (6). b) With aid of a table, show the CSF differences of glucose, protein and cells in bacterial, tuberculous and viral meningitis (9). c) List five disease conditions associated with HIV/AIDS in the CNS (10).
a) Aetiological organisms
- Bacterial: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis (also Haemophilus influenzae type b; group B streptococcus / E. coli in neonates)
- Viral: enteroviruses (echovirus/coxsackie), herpes simplex virus (also mumps virus, HIV)
- Fungal: Cryptococcus neoformans, Candida albicans (also Histoplasma, Aspergillus)
b) CSF findings
| Parameter | Bacterial (pyogenic) | Tuberculous | Viral |
|---|---|---|---|
| Appearance | Turbid / purulent | Clear, forms fibrin web on standing | Clear |
| Cells | Markedly raised, neutrophils (100s to 1000s) | Raised, lymphocytes | Mildly raised, lymphocytes |
| Glucose | Markedly low (<40% of blood) | Low | Normal |
| Protein | Markedly raised | Very high | Normal or mildly raised |
c) CNS conditions in HIV/AIDS (any five): cryptococcal meningitis; cerebral toxoplasmosis; progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (JC virus); CMV encephalitis / ventriculitis; primary CNS lymphoma (EBV-driven); HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder / HIV encephalitis; tuberculous meningitis.
- Know the organisms by age and the CSF table cold; in HIV/AIDS the CNS is hit by cryptococcus, toxoplasma, CMV, PML (JC virus) and primary CNS lymphoma.
- Cryptococcus: India-ink/encapsulated yeast, "soap-bubble" lesions; Toxoplasma: ring-enhancing lesions; PML: demyelination, no enhancement.
- Organisms by age group
- CSF table (bacterial/viral/TB)
- HIV/AIDS CNS conditions named
- Cryptococcus / toxoplasma features
- Diagnostic tests (India ink, serology, PCR)
AIDS CNS → "CT-PC": Cryptococcus, Toxoplasma, PML (JC), CNS lymphoma (+CMV).
The commonest cause of fungal meningitis in advanced HIV is:
- ACandida albicans
- BCryptococcus neoformans
- CAspergillus
- DHistoplasma
Multiple ring-enhancing brain lesions in an AIDS patient most suggest:
- APML
- BToxoplasmosis
- CCryptococcoma
- DTuberculoma only
- CSF table: bacterial vs viral vs TB by cells/glucose/protein.
- AIDS CNS: cryptococcus, toxoplasma, PML, CMV, lymphoma.
- Cryptococcus = India ink; toxoplasma = ring-enhancing.
Haematology
33 SAQsA 52-year-old female. Hb 6.3 g/dL; MCV 118 fL; WBC 4.2 ×10⁹/L; Platelets 250 ×10⁹/L.
i) Interpret the results (4). ii) Give differential diagnosis (4). iii) Outline relevant lab investigations (9).
b) Describe the white blood cell changes associated with chronic HIV/AIDS infection (8).
i) Interpretation: severe anaemia (Hb 6.3 g/dL) with a raised MCV (118 fL) — a macrocytic anaemia; WBC and platelets are normal.
ii) Differential diagnosis: megaloblastic — vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency; non-megaloblastic — alcohol/chronic liver disease, hypothyroidism, myelodysplastic syndrome.
iii) Investigations: peripheral blood film (macro-ovalocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils); serum B12 and folate; reticulocyte count; bone-marrow aspirate (megaloblastic change); LDH and bilirubin (ineffective erythropoiesis); intrinsic-factor / parietal-cell antibodies; thyroid and liver function tests.
b) WBC changes in chronic HIV/AIDS: lymphopenia (especially CD4 T cells) with a reversed CD4:CD8 ratio; leukopenia and neutropenia; atypical/reactive lymphocytes; progression to pancytopenia in advanced disease.
A 16-year-old female in follow-up in the haematology clinic with menorrhagia. Hb 7.6 g/dL; MCV 66; MCH 22.6; platelets 198 ×10⁹/L.
a) Outline the causes of her blood picture (2.5). b) Salient aspects of the (i) history and (ii) clinical signs (5). c) State appropriate haematological investigations (5).
a) Causes
- Thalassaemia
- Iron deficiency anaemia
- Lead poisoning
- Sideroblastic anaemia
b) Salient features — History: fatigue, palpitations, tinnitus, generalised oedema, tachycardia. Signs: glossitis, koilonychia, conjunctival pallor.
c) Haematological investigations
- Peripheral blood smear — hypochromic microcytic cells
- Haemoglobin electrophoresis — abnormal Hb in thalassaemia
- Perls' Prussian-blue stain of bone marrow — increased iron stores in sideroblastic anaemia
- Serum ferritin — reduced in iron deficiency
- Blood toxin screen — for lead poisoning
A nurse monitoring a child on blood transfusion observes fever, difficulty breathing and hypotension within 30 min of starting.
a) Likely differential causes (5). b) Which specimen should be taken to the laboratory and the tests to be performed (7.5).
a) Differentials
- Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction (mismatched blood group) — most likely
- Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction
- Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
- Circulatory overload (TACO)
- Bacterial contamination
b) Specimen & tests
- Blood — for crossmatching
- Blood — culture for bacteria
- Blood — reticulocyte count (increased)
- Blood — direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test
- Urine for free haemoglobin (haemoglobinuria)
- Blood — mast cell tryptase (allergic reaction)
A four-year-old with: Hb 6.7 g/dL; MCV 86 fL; WBC 40 ×10⁹/L; peripheral film N 3%, L 32%, 65% blasts; platelets 22 ×10⁹/L.
a) With reasons, name the likely cause of the blood picture (4). b) Three expected clinical features (6). c) Mandatory lab tests with expected results (10). d) Principles of treatment (5).
a) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) — 65% blasts on film with cytopenias (anaemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia).
b) Clinical features
- Anaemia: fatigue, weakness, pallor, dyspnoea
- Thrombocytopenia: bleeding gums, epistaxis, petechiae, easy bruising
- Neutropenia: increased infection risk (respiratory, sinus)
- Hepatosplenomegaly
c) Mandatory tests
- Bone-marrow aspiration — hypercellular marrow with blasts >20%
- Immunophenotyping — TdT positive in ALL; markers CD3 (T-cell), CD19/CD20 (B-cell)
- Cytogenetics — abnormalities including t(9;22)
d) Principles of treatment
- Combination chemotherapy in phases: induction, consolidation, then maintenance
- CNS-directed prophylaxis with intrathecal chemotherapy (the CNS and testes are sanctuary sites)
- Supportive care: transfusion, antimicrobial prophylaxis, tumour-lysis prevention, nutrition
- Allogeneic stem-cell transplant for high-risk or relapsed disease
- Psychosocial support
A 50-year-old unwell for 4 months: Hb 4 g/dL; RBC 1.4 ×10¹²/L; MCV 90 fL; WBC 1.3 ×10⁹/L; platelets 13 ×10⁹/L.
a) Expected clinical features with reasons (6). b) Two differential diagnoses (2). c) Key investigations differentiating the two, with expected findings (12). d) Management principles of ONE differential (5).
a) Easy fatigability & exertional dyspnoea (low Hb/RBC → poor oxygen delivery); recurrent infections — oral thrush, pneumonia, meningitis (low WBC); bruises/petechiae & epistaxis (low platelets → impaired primary haemostasis).
b) Differentials: bone-marrow failure (BMF); acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
c) Investigations
- Bone-marrow aspirate — BMF: marrow replaced by adipose, lack of cells; AML: large numbers of immature myeloblasts
- Peripheral film — BMF: general lack of all cell lines, no abnormal cells; AML: immature cells with Auer rods in cytoplasm
- Cytochemical staining — BMF: no abnormalities; AML: may stain positive (Sudan Black, lysozyme)
d) Management (BMF): support — blood/whole-blood/packed-cell transfusion, antibiotics for infection; treatment — bone-marrow transplant; antiviral therapy if infection-related (e.g. HIV).
Coagulation screen of a 32-year-old female admitted with suspected AKI, febrile post-termination of pregnancy 3 days ago. FBC: WBC 31 ×10⁹/L (N 75%, L 10%, M 15%); Hb 7.1 g/dL; platelets 68 ×10⁹/L. Bleeding time 16 min (control 9–12); PT 27 s (control 10–13); aPTT 58 s (control 29–38).
a) Interpret and give two differentials (6). b) Other haematological tests to confirm (5). c) Pathophysiology of the AKI (9). d) Five other conditions with similar results (5).
a) Raised WBC (infection/leukaemia); normal differential ratio; low Hb; low platelets; prolonged bleeding time (impaired primary haemostasis — platelet issue); prolonged PT and aPTT (intrinsic and extrinsic pathway deficiency). Differentials: disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC); systemic lupus erythematosus.
b) Tests: peripheral film; prothrombin time (common pathway); fibrinogen assay; fibrin-degradation products (FDPs); immunofluorescence for antinuclear antibodies.
c) DIC pathophysiology: procoagulant factors enter the blood triggering coagulation cascades (a common complication of postpartum haemorrhage) → circulating thrombin → thrombi enter renal circulation and occlude vessels → renal tubular necrosis → ↓GFR from reduced perfusion → acute kidney injury.
d) Other conditions giving a similar coagulation picture (prolonged PT/aPTT with thrombocytopenia): severe liver disease; vitamin K deficiency; massive transfusion; sepsis; thrombotic microangiopathies (TTP/HUS) and HELLP syndrome.
A 40-year-old female with 6 months of progressive weakness; pale, afebrile. Hb 6.3 g/dL; WBC 4.3 ×10⁹/L; platelets 161 ×10⁹/L; MCV 109 fL.
i) Interpret (4). ii) Six differential diagnoses (6). iii) Relevant investigations with expected findings (10).
i) Interpretation: low haemoglobin consistent with anaemia (macrocytic); WBC normal (4–11); platelets normal (150–450); MCV high.
ii) Differentials: iron-deficiency anaemia; vitamin B12 deficiency; haemolytic anaemia; folate deficiency; chronic kidney disease; myelodysplastic syndrome.
iii) Investigations: peripheral film; bone-marrow aspirate; serum ferritin (low in IDA); serum iron (low); serum transferrin (high); TIBC (increased). Note: for a macrocytic picture, serum B12/folate would be the key confirmatory tests — the source list leans toward iron studies.
A 2-year-old boy with swollen fingers, pallor and jaundice; recurrent, and an older sister affected. Hb 4 g/dL; WBC 10 ×10⁹/L; platelets 400 ×10⁹/L; MCV 90 fL; MCH 32 pg.
i) Most likely diagnosis with reasons (6). ii) Investigations with likely findings (9). iii) Five likely complications over time (5).
i) Hereditary spherocytosis — pallor (anaemia); swollen fingers (splenomegaly); jaundice (haemolysis); family history (older sister affected → genetic).
ii) Investigations: direct Coombs test — negative (distinguishes from autoimmune haemolytic anaemia); peripheral smear — spherocytes and increased reticulocytes; Hb electrophoresis — rule out haemoglobinopathies; osmotic fragility test — increased; genetic testing.
iii) Complications: haemolytic crises; pigment gallstones; aplastic crisis (parvovirus B19); splenomegaly; folate deficiency. (Auto-splenectomy is a feature of sickle cell disease, not spherocytosis: in HS the spleen enlarges.)
A 24-year-old male on transfusion for a road-traffic accident develops chills, back pain, hypotension and fever 30 min after starting.
a) Two differentials (2). b) Samples to collect (4). c) Lab tests and expected findings to confirm (4).
a) Differentials: acute haemolytic transfusion reaction (mismatch); sepsis/bacterial contamination.
b) Samples: blood for full haemogram; blood cultures; the transfusion product for screening and crossmatch.
c) Tests: complete blood count; blood cultures; blood grouping and crossmatch; further coagulation studies.
A 23-year-old referred for management of suspected leukaemia.
i) Likely complaints (3). ii) Salient examination features (3). iii) Mandatory tests for diagnosis (5). iv) Blood products useful in management (1.5).
i) Complaints: fever; malaise; weight loss; anorexia; recurrent infections; easy shortness of breath; night sweats.
ii) Examination: splenomegaly; hepatomegaly; testicular enlargement (if male); pallor; lymphadenopathy.
iii) Mandatory tests: (transcription continues from the source — full blood count/peripheral film, bone-marrow aspirate, immunophenotyping, cytogenetics are the standard set).
iv) Blood products: packed red cells and platelets.
A 40-year-old man: Hb 5.7 g/dL; WBC 1.3 ×10⁹/L; platelets 23 ×10⁹/L.
i) Basis and presenting clinical features (7.5). ii) Critical initial investigations (5).
i) Interpretation: low platelets, low WBC, low haemoglobin. Basis: pancytopenia. Clinical features: easy gum bleeding; easy fatigability; shortness of breath; frequent recurrent infections.
ii) Investigations: peripheral blood film (and bone-marrow examination as the key next step).
A 35-year-old female in haematology clinic: WBC 6.0 ×10⁹/L; RBC 3.2 ×10¹²/L; Hb 7 g/dL; HCT/PCV 22%; MCV 104 fL; platelets 340 ×10⁹/L.
a) Interpret the findings (5). b) Possible diagnosis (10). c) Further tests and interpretation to confirm (10).
a) Interpretation: low Hb (7 g/dL) — severe anaemia; low RBC and low HCT/PCV; raised MCV (104 fL) — macrocytic picture; normal WBC and platelets.
b) Possible diagnosis: macrocytic anaemia, most likely megaloblastic (vitamin B12 and/or folate deficiency).
c) Further tests / interpretation: peripheral blood film (macro-ovalocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils); serum B12 and folate assays; reticulocyte count; bone-marrow aspirate (megaloblastic erythropoiesis); anti-intrinsic-factor antibodies; raised LDH and unconjugated bilirubin support ineffective erythropoiesis.
Classification of birth defects: 1) with examples, enumerate vascular birth defects that present with haematological features; 2) main haematological features observed; 3) classification of lymphatic and venous birth defects.
1) Vascular birth defects with haematological features: large vascular tumours/malformations that trap and consume blood elements — e.g. kaposiform haemangioendothelioma and tufted angioma causing the Kasabach–Merritt phenomenon; giant congenital haemangiomas.
2) Main haematological features: consumptive thrombocytopenia; microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (fragmented red cells); consumptive coagulopathy with low fibrinogen (DIC-like picture).
3) Classification of lymphatic and venous birth defects: lymphatic malformations — macrocystic, microcystic and mixed (e.g. cystic hygroma); venous malformations — localised or segmental (e.g. blue-rubber-bleb naevus, malformations in Klippel–Trénaunay syndrome).
A 6-year-old girl from coastal Kenya presents with anaemia and jaundice from childhood.
a) Three likely haematological causes with explanation (3). b) Further clinical features and complications (12). c) Relevant lab tests and expected findings (10).
a) Three likely causes: sickle cell disease; G6PD deficiency; thalassaemia — inherited haemolytic anaemias that are prevalent in malaria-endemic coastal Kenya. Chronic red-cell haemolysis produces anaemia plus unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (jaundice) from early childhood.
b) Further features / complications: pallor and fatigue; hepatosplenomegaly; scleral jaundice; pigment gallstones; vaso-occlusive crises with dactylitis and bone pain (SCD); growth retardation; leg ulcers; aplastic and splenic-sequestration crises; increased susceptibility to infection.
c) Lab tests / findings: FBC (anaemia); blood film (sickle cells, target cells, Howell–Jolly bodies); reticulocytosis; Hb electrophoresis (HbSS / HbF); sickling test; G6PD assay; raised unconjugated bilirubin and LDH with low haptoglobin; negative direct antiglobulin test (non-immune haemolysis).
3a) 52-year-old female — Hb 6.3 g/dL; MCV 118 fL; WBC 4.2 ×10⁹/L; platelets 250 ×10⁹/L. (i) Interpret (4); (ii) differential diagnosis (4); (iii) relevant lab investigations (7). 3b) Discuss the laboratory tests necessary in a 6-year-old boy suspected of a congenital bleeding disorder (10).
3a) 52-year-old female: (i) Interpretation — severe anaemia (Hb 6.3) with raised MCV (118 fL) = macrocytic anaemia; normal WBC and platelets. (ii) DDx — megaloblastic (B12 or folate deficiency); non-megaloblastic (alcohol/liver disease, hypothyroidism, myelodysplasia). (iii) Investigations — blood film (macro-ovalocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils); serum B12 and folate; reticulocytes; bone-marrow aspirate; anti-intrinsic-factor antibodies; LDH/bilirubin.
3b) Suspected congenital bleeding disorder (6-year-old boy): full blood count and platelet count; peripheral blood film; prothrombin time (PT); activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT); bleeding time; specific coagulation-factor assays (VIII and IX for haemophilia A/B); von Willebrand factor assay; mixing studies to detect inhibitors; genetic testing.
4a) State the major tests performed on donor blood before transfusion (10). 4b) Short notes on the classification and laboratory diagnosis of leukaemias (15).
4a) Mandatory tests on donor blood: ABO and Rh(D) grouping; red-cell antibody screen; HIV; hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg); hepatitis C antibody; syphilis (VDRL/TPHA); malaria screen (in endemic areas); HTLV where indicated; donor haemoglobin/haematocrit.
4b) Classification and lab diagnosis of leukaemias: classify by rate (acute vs chronic) and lineage (lymphoid vs myeloid) — AML, ALL, CML, CLL. Laboratory diagnosis: FBC (variable/raised WBC, anaemia, thrombocytopenia); blood film (blasts, Auer rods in AML); bone-marrow aspirate (>20% blasts defines acute leukaemia); cytochemistry (myeloperoxidase / Sudan black for myeloid, PAS / TdT for lymphoid); immunophenotyping by flow cytometry (CD markers); cytogenetics (e.g. Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) in CML).
Congenital haemolytic anaemias (classify, 2 examples each, lab tests); a 40-year-old man with very low Hb, platelets and WBCs.
Congenital haemolytic anaemias: classified by the site of defect — membrane (hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis); enzyme (G6PD deficiency, pyruvate-kinase deficiency); haemoglobin (sickle cell disease, thalassaemia). Lab tests — peripheral blood film, osmotic-fragility test, G6PD assay, Hb electrophoresis.
40-year-old man with very low Hb, platelets and WBCs (pancytopenia): differentials — aplastic anaemia; acute leukaemia; megaloblastic anaemia; marrow infiltration; hypersplenism. Key investigations — peripheral blood film and bone-marrow examination.
A 5-year-old girl with multiple infections since infancy; 8-year-old brother similarly affected; jaundice; low Hb. a) Most likely diagnosis and why; b) differential diagnosis; c) laboratory tests and expected findings.
a) Most likely diagnosis: sickle cell disease. The recurrent infections (functional hyposplenism predisposing to encapsulated organisms), haemolytic jaundice, low Hb and an affected sibling (autosomal-recessive inheritance) fit an inherited haemolytic anaemia.
b) Differential diagnosis: G6PD deficiency; thalassaemia major; hereditary spherocytosis; autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
c) Laboratory tests / expected findings: FBC (anaemia); blood film (sickle cells, target cells, Howell–Jolly bodies); Hb electrophoresis (HbSS); sickling test; reticulocytosis; raised unconjugated bilirubin and LDH; G6PD assay to exclude the differential.
a) Types of blood donors (6). b) Clinical features of changes of blood cells including reticulocytes. c) Indications for bone-marrow examination based on peripheral-blood-film findings.
a) Types of blood donors: voluntary non-remunerated (safest); family/replacement donors; paid/commercial donors; autologous donors; directed donors; apheresis donors.
b) Changes in blood cells (incl. reticulocytes): reticulocytosis (increased marrow output in haemolysis or after blood loss); reticulocytopenia (marrow failure); anisocytosis and poikilocytosis; polychromasia; left shift; toxic granulation of neutrophils in infection.
c) Indications for bone-marrow examination from the film: unexplained cytopenias (especially pancytopenia); blasts or abnormal cells on the film; suspected leukaemia, lymphoma or myeloma; a leucoerythroblastic picture; disease staging; unexplained anaemia not responding to treatment.
3a) A 46-year-old male, 6 months of weakness, fatigue, weight loss — Hb 7.9 g/dL; WBC 15 ×10⁹/L; MCV 60 fL; MCH 20 pg; RBC 3.8 ×10¹²/L; platelets 350 ×10⁹/L. (i) Interpret (4); (ii) differential diagnosis with reasons (4); (iii) outline investigation (7). 3b) Compare and contrast the laboratory features of haemophilia and ITP (10).
3a) 46-year-old male: (i) Interpretation — low Hb (7.9), low MCV (60 fL) and low MCH (20 pg) = microcytic hypochromic anaemia, with a raised WBC (leucocytosis); platelets normal. (ii) DDx — iron-deficiency anaemia (chronic blood loss, e.g. GI malignancy given age and weight loss); anaemia of chronic disease; thalassaemia trait; sideroblastic anaemia. (iii) Investigation — blood film; serum ferritin, iron, TIBC and transferrin saturation; faecal occult blood / endoscopy; Hb electrophoresis; CRP.
3b) Haemophilia vs ITP: Haemophilia — coagulation-factor deficiency (VIII/IX): prolonged APTT, normal PT, normal platelets and bleeding time; deep bleeds (haemarthroses, muscle haematomas). ITP — immune platelet destruction: low platelet count, prolonged bleeding time, normal PT/APTT; mucocutaneous bleeding (petechiae, purpura); increased megakaryocytes on marrow.
4a) Outline the National Blood Transfusion Service functional structure and describe the function of the blood bank (16). 4b) Outline the role of compatibility testing (9).
4a) National Blood Transfusion Service structure & blood-bank function: a national coordinating centre with regional/satellite transfusion centres; functions span donor recruitment and mobilisation, blood collection, mandatory testing (grouping and transfusion-transmissible-infection screening), processing into components, storage and distribution. The blood bank performs grouping, antibody screening, component storage, cross-matching, safe issue of blood and haemovigilance.
4b) Role of compatibility testing (cross-matching): confirms donor–recipient compatibility to prevent haemolytic transfusion reactions — ABO/Rh grouping of donor and recipient, antibody screening, and the cross-match itself (major: recipient serum against donor cells; minor: donor serum against recipient cells) performed through immediate-spin, 37 °C incubation and antihuman-globulin (Coombs) phases.
I. A 36-year-old female with recent-onset jaundice, otherwise well. Hb 6.2 g/dL, WBC 5.5 ×10⁹/L, platelets 330 ×10⁹/L.
a) likely differential diagnosis (2). b) other salient history (3). c) laboratory investigations and expected findings (8). She is scheduled for transfusion — d) appropriate blood product (2). e) one week later she returns fatigued with headache — list 2 adverse transfusion events that present this late (2).
II. A 16-year-old female with menorrhagia and bleeding tendencies; prolonged bleeding time and APTT 52 s (ref 26–35).
a) 5 causes of a prolonged APTT (5). b) most likely cause given the history (2). c) further confirmatory tests (4). d) principles of management (5). Later Hb 6 g/dL, fatigued — f) appropriate blood product(s) (4).
Case I — isolated anaemia + jaundice
a) Differential: haemolytic anaemia (anaemia + jaundice with normal WBC and platelets → isolated red-cell destruction, i.e. pre-hepatic/haemolytic jaundice). Causes: autoimmune haemolytic anaemia; inherited — sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, G6PD deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis.
b) Salient history: onset/duration and family history (inherited haemolysis); drug/food triggers (G6PD — antimalarials, fava beans); dark urine (haemoglobinuria); recent infection; anaemia symptoms; pregnancy; prior transfusions; features of SLE/autoimmune disease.
c) Investigations + expected findings:
- FBC + peripheral film — anaemia; spherocytes/schistocytes/sickle cells; polychromasia
- Reticulocyte count — raised (marrow compensation)
- Serum bilirubin — raised unconjugated (indirect)
- LDH raised; haptoglobin low/absent
- Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test — positive in autoimmune haemolysis
- Urine — raised urobilinogen ± haemoglobinuria
- Hb electrophoresis; G6PD assay; osmotic fragility — per suspected cause
d) Blood product: cross-matched packed red blood cells (least-incompatible/closely cross-matched units if autoimmune).
e) Late (~1 week) adverse events: delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction (anamnestic antibody response); post-transfusion purpura / alloimmunisation. (Transfusion-associated GVHD and iron overload are later still.)
Case II — menorrhagia + prolonged bleeding time and APTT
a) Causes of prolonged APTT: haemophilia A (FVIII deficiency); haemophilia B (FIX deficiency); von Willebrand disease; heparin therapy; lupus anticoagulant/antiphospholipid. (Also FXI/FXII deficiency, DIC, liver disease, vitamin K deficiency.)
b) Most likely cause: von Willebrand disease — the combination of a prolonged bleeding time (defective platelet adhesion) and prolonged APTT (low FVIII carried by vWF), with menorrhagia in a young female, is classic. Haemophilia would prolong APTT but not the bleeding time and is X-linked (rare in females).
c) Confirmatory tests: vWF antigen (reduced); vWF activity / ristocetin cofactor assay (reduced); factor VIII level (reduced); ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation and vWF multimer analysis.
d) Principles of management: desmopressin (DDAVP) to release vWF/FVIII (type 1); vWF/FVIII concentrate for severe/type 3 or major bleeds; antifibrinolytics (tranexamic acid) for mucosal bleeding/menorrhagia; hormonal control of menorrhagia (combined OCP); avoid aspirin/NSAIDs; patient education and genetic counselling.
f) Blood products (Hb 6, symptomatic): packed red cells for the anaemia, plus a vWF-containing factor concentrate — or cryoprecipitate (contains fibrinogen, FVIII and vWF) — to correct the bleeding tendency; tranexamic acid as adjunct.
A four-year-old male presents with a two-month history of splenomegaly.
a) give 5 possible causes of an enlarged spleen in this child (5). b) outline relevant laboratory investigations useful in the work-up (8).
a) Causes of splenomegaly (child):
- Infections — malaria (endemic in Kenya), visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), typhoid, EBV (infectious mononucleosis)
- Haemolytic anaemias — sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis
- Haematological malignancy — acute leukaemia (ALL), lymphoma
- Portal hypertension (hepatic/portal-vein pathology)
- Storage disorders — Gaucher, Niemann–Pick
b) Laboratory investigations:
- FBC + differential — cytopenias (hypersplenism), blasts (leukaemia)
- Peripheral blood film — malaria parasites, sickle cells, blasts, spherocytes
- Reticulocyte count
- Malaria rapid test + thick/thin films
- Hb electrophoresis (sickle/thalassaemia)
- Bone-marrow aspirate — leukaemia, Leishmania amastigotes, storage cells
- LFTs + coagulation screen (portal hypertension/liver disease)
- Abdominal ultrasound — spleen size, portal vein, liver
- Blood cultures / serology (typhoid, EBV); HIV test
- LDH, bilirubin (markers of haemolysis)
A 65-year-old male with no previous history presents with a haemoglobin of 10.5 g/dL and MCV of 101 fL.
a) differential diagnosis (4). b) tests to perform as follow-up to confirm the diagnosis (10). c) briefly outline the tests used in the initial investigation of suspected haemolysis (10).
a) Differential diagnosis (macrocytic anaemia): megaloblastic — vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency; non-megaloblastic — alcohol/liver disease, hypothyroidism, myelodysplastic syndrome, reticulocytosis from haemolysis or bleeding, drugs (hydroxyurea, methotrexate).
b) Confirmatory follow-up tests:
- Peripheral blood film — macro-ovalocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils (megaloblastic); target cells (liver)
- Reticulocyte count — low (megaloblastic) vs high (haemolysis/bleeding)
- Serum vitamin B12, serum and red-cell folate
- If B12 low: anti-intrinsic-factor and anti-parietal-cell antibodies (pernicious anaemia)
- Bone-marrow aspirate — megaloblastic change or MDS features (ring sideroblasts, dysplasia)
- LFTs and TSH (liver, thyroid causes)
- LDH and bilirubin — raised with ineffective erythropoiesis
- Cytogenetics if MDS suspected
c) Initial investigation of suspected haemolysis:
- FBC + reticulocyte count — reticulocytosis
- Peripheral film — schistocytes, spherocytes, sickle cells, bite cells
- Serum unconjugated bilirubin — raised
- LDH — raised
- Haptoglobin — reduced/absent
- Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test — autoimmune haemolysis
- Urine — urobilinogen, haemoglobinuria, haemosiderinuria
- Confirmatory per cause — Hb electrophoresis, G6PD assay, osmotic fragility
A patient presents with a white cell count of 40.0 ×10⁹/L.
a) what other observations may be relevant at this time? (10). b) what immediate follow-up tests would be appropriate? (15).
a) Other relevant observations:
- Clinical: age; fever/infection, weight loss, night sweats, bleeding, bone pain; lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, pallor, gum hypertrophy
- Rest of the FBC — haemoglobin (anaemia?), platelets (thrombocytopenia?), red-cell indices
- The white-cell differential — which lineage is raised (neutrophils, lymphocytes, eosinophils, blasts)?
- Presence of immature cells/blasts on the film
- Reactive (infection, inflammation, steroids, splenectomy) vs neoplastic (leukaemia) cause
- Drug history (steroids, G-CSF), recent infection
b) Immediate follow-up tests:
- Peripheral blood film — morphology, blasts, Auer rods, left shift, smudge cells
- Repeat FBC with differential
- Bone-marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy — cellularity, blast %
- Immunophenotyping / flow cytometry — lineage (myeloid vs lymphoid, CD markers)
- Cytochemistry — myeloperoxidase, Sudan black, PAS
- Cytogenetics / molecular — t(9;22) BCR-ABL (CML), t(15;17) (APL)
- Blood cultures, CRP if a reactive/infective cause is suspected
- LDH, uric acid, renal function — tumour-lysis risk
- Coagulation screen — DIC (especially in acute promyelocytic leukaemia)
A 25-year-old female presented with features of anaemia. She is known to have von Willebrand disease. a) Describe the likely complaint (5). b) Note the physical examination findings (6). c) Give an outline of the haematological investigations (9). d) Write a brief note on her treatment (5).
a) Likely complaint: mucocutaneous bleeding - easy bruising; recurrent epistaxis; prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, dental work or surgery; menorrhagia (the likely cause of her anaemia); gum bleeding; plus symptoms of anaemia (fatigue, dyspnoea, palpitations).
b) Physical findings: pallor of anaemia; ecchymoses / bruises of varying age; petechiae uncommon; haemarthrosis characteristically absent (unlike haemophilia) except in severe type 3; tachycardia; features of iron deficiency (koilonychia, glossitis, angular stomatitis).
c) Haematological investigations: FBC (low Hb, microcytic if iron-deficient) and peripheral film; bleeding time prolonged; platelet count usually normal; PT normal; APTT normal or prolonged (from low factor VIII); von Willebrand factor antigen (vWF:Ag) reduced; vWF activity / ristocetin cofactor (vWF:RCo) reduced; factor VIII level reduced (vWF stabilises it); ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation (RIPA); vWF multimer analysis to type the disease.
d) Treatment: desmopressin (DDAVP) to release stored vWF/FVIII (type 1); vWF-containing factor VIII concentrate for severe type 3 or major surgery; antifibrinolytics (tranexamic acid) for mucosal bleeding and menorrhagia; combined oral contraceptive for menorrhagia; iron supplementation for the anaemia; avoid aspirin and NSAIDs.
a) A 7-year-old boy is brought to casualty with a painful swollen ankle. Hb 12.5 g/dL; WBC 9 ×10⁹/L; platelets 250 ×10⁹/L; PT 12 s (control 13); APTT 56 s (control 36). i) Comment on the findings (3). ii) Give two likely differential diagnoses (2). iii) What further history may be relevant (2). iv) List further investigations you would do with their expected findings (4).
b) Indicate the preferred blood component(s) for: i) a child on chemotherapy with Hb 5 g/dL and platelets 11 ×10⁹/L (2); ii) a patient with liver failure, haemoptysis and ecchymoses (2); iii) a bleeding patient with von Willebrand disease (1); iv) a patient with severe iron-deficiency anaemia and congestive heart failure (2).
c) Outline relevant laboratory investigations for a patient with a transfusion reaction (8).
a)i) Findings: normal Hb, WBC and platelets; normal PT; an isolated, markedly prolonged APTT points to an intrinsic-pathway factor defect (factor VIII, IX or XI). The painful swollen joint is a haemarthrosis. Picture suggests an inherited factor deficiency.
a)ii) Differentials: haemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency); haemophilia B (factor IX deficiency, Christmas disease). (Also factor XI deficiency.)
a)iii) Further history: family history of bleeding (X-linked, affected maternal male relatives); prolonged bleeding after circumcision or injury; recurrent joint or muscle bleeds; drug history.
a)iv) Investigations + expected findings: mixing study (APTT corrects with normal plasma, indicating factor deficiency not an inhibitor); factor VIII and factor IX assays (one markedly reduced); vWF assay (normal, to exclude vWD); genetic testing.
b) Blood components:
- i) Packed red cells and platelet concentrate (symptomatic anaemia plus severe thrombocytopenia)
- ii) Fresh frozen plasma (multiple clotting-factor deficiency of liver failure), with platelets if thrombocytopenic
- iii) Desmopressin or a vWF/FVIII concentrate; if a product is needed, cryoprecipitate (source of vWF/FVIII)
- iv) Packed red cells given slowly with diuretic cover / in small aliquots to avoid volume overload in heart failure
c) Transfusion-reaction lab workup: clerical / bedside check of patient identity and unit; return the unit and giving set to the lab; repeat ABO/Rh grouping and crossmatch on pre- and post-transfusion samples; direct antiglobulin test (DAT/Coombs); FBC; plasma free haemoglobin and serum bilirubin (haemolysis); LDH and haptoglobin; urinalysis for haemoglobinuria; coagulation screen (DIC); blood cultures of patient and unit (bacterial contamination); renal function (acute kidney injury).
A 5-year-old boy from the coastal region of Kenya is referred to the haematology clinic in KNH with yellowness of eyes, pallor and painful limbs. He has had repeated past admissions with painful swollen fingers and toes. i) What is the most likely diagnosis (3)? ii) What further history would be relevant (3)? iii) Outline the relevant investigations for diagnosis and management and their likely findings (6.5).
i) Most likely diagnosis: sickle cell disease (Hb SS) - an endemic coastal region, chronic haemolytic jaundice with pallor, recurrent painful vaso-occlusive crises, and dactylitis (hand-foot syndrome), which is the classic early childhood presentation.
ii) Further history: family history / sickle trait in parents; age at first symptoms; frequency and triggers of crises (infection, cold, dehydration); previous transfusions and hospital admissions; episodes of splenic sequestration; jaundice; growth and development; vaccination and penicillin prophylaxis.
iii) Investigations + likely findings: FBC (normocytic normochromic anaemia, Hb ~6 to 9 g/dL) with reticulocytosis; peripheral film (sickle cells, target cells, Howell-Jolly bodies from hyposplenism, nucleated RBCs); sickling test / sodium metabisulphite (positive); Hb electrophoresis or HPLC as the confirmatory test (HbS band, no HbA, raised HbF); raised unconjugated bilirubin and LDH with low haptoglobin (haemolysis); for management - G6PD screen, iron studies, renal and hepatic function, blood group and crossmatch, and an infection screen during crises.
A 27-year-old female presents with the following full blood count: Hb 4.5 g/dL; MCV 116 fL; WBC 2.4 ×10⁹/L; platelets 120 ×10⁹/L. i) Interpret the findings (1.5). ii) State two likely causes (1). iii) Give three clinical features likely to be found in this patient (3). iv) Outline relevant laboratory investigations for management with expected findings (7.5).
i) Interpretation: severe macrocytic anaemia (Hb 4.5, MCV 116) with mild leucopenia and thrombocytopenia, i.e. a macrocytic anaemia with early pancytopenia, typical of megaloblastic anaemia.
ii) Two likely causes: vitamin B12 deficiency (pernicious anaemia); folate deficiency. (Also myelodysplasia.)
iii) Clinical features: pallor with fatigue and dyspnoea; mild jaundice (ineffective erythropoiesis); glossitis / angular stomatitis; in B12 deficiency, peripheral neuropathy or subacute combined degeneration; easy bruising and infections from the cytopenias.
iv) Investigations + expected findings: peripheral film (oval macrocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils, pancytopenia); reticulocyte count (low); serum B12 and red-cell folate assays; bone-marrow aspirate (hypercellular, megaloblastic erythropoiesis, giant metamyelocytes); anti-intrinsic-factor and anti-parietal-cell antibodies; raised LDH and unconjugated bilirubin; OGD for atrophic gastritis if pernicious anaemia is suspected.
Note: reading red-cell indices to place an anaemia is the single most repeated skill in this question set - see also the macrocytic cases q1, q27, q49, q66, q96.
Lymphoid & Hodgkin/Non-Hodgkin
4 SAQsA six-year-old male from Western province presents with a rapidly growing lower-jaw tumour; preliminary investigations show a haemato-lymphoid tumour.
a) Possible diagnosis (1). b) Two anatomic-pathology lab tests to confirm (2). c) Microscopic features (4). d) Three positive IHC stains and two common mutations (5).
a) Burkitt's lymphoma.
b) Lab tests: tissue biopsy; flow cytometry; specialised staining.
c) Microscopic features: starry-sky appearance; high mitotic figures; sheets of monotonous uniform lymphoid cells with high N:C ratio; high cell density with small non-cleaved cells.
d) Mutations: translocation of chromosome 8 and 14; translocation of chromosome 8 and 22.
IHC (added; source garbled): CD20 positive (B-cell); CD10 positive; BCL6 positive; Ki-67 proliferation index approaching 100%; BCL2 negative.
A 5-year-old boy from Kisumu with a rapidly growing right jaw mass; core biopsy shows a high-grade lymphoproliferative disorder.
a) Likely diagnosis. b) Essential features and epidemiology. c) Microscopic features. d) Subtypes. e) Associated mutations.
a) Burkitt's lymphoma (African/endemic).
b) Mass usually on the mandible; extranodal presentation; may involve abdominal viscera (endemic). A peripheral B-cell neoplasm often driven by Epstein–Barr virus (EBV, Herpesviridae). Seen in children and the young.
c) Infiltration by lymphoid cells with rounded nuclei and several nucleoli; high mitotic index; numerous apoptotic cells; "starry-sky" pattern from macrophages engulfing apoptotic debris.
d) Subtypes: African (endemic); sporadic; HIV-associated.
e) Mutation: translocation of the MYC gene on chromosome 8 → increased MYC protein production.
a) Briefly discuss the WHO classification of lymphomas (6). b) Discuss the basis for the classification (6).
a) Two main groups: Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). NHL is subdivided by the lymphocyte involved (B-cell or T-cell) and other features.
b) Basis: cell type/origin; morphology; genotype; clinical features; response to treatment.
A. Meningitis under: (i) aetiological causes (5); (ii) gross and microscopic features of pyogenic meningitis (4); (iii) CSF findings in pyogenic meningitis (4).
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma under: (i) morphologic features (4); (ii) types (4); (iii) immunophenotypic features (4).
A. Meningitis
(i) Aetiological causes:
- Bacterial (pyogenic): neonates — E. coli, Group B Streptococcus, Listeria; children/adults — N. meningitidis, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
- Viral (aseptic): enteroviruses, mumps, HSV
- Fungal: Cryptococcus neoformans (esp. HIV)
- Mycobacterial: M. tuberculosis (chronic)
- Non-infective: chemical, malignant (carcinomatous)
(ii) Gross & microscopic (pyogenic): gross — purulent exudate over the meninges filling the sulci and (pneumococcal) base of brain; congested, swollen brain; cloudy CSF. Microscopic — neutrophil-rich exudate in the subarachnoid space; congested/dilated meningeal vessels; vasculitis/thrombosis may occur; organisms on Gram stain.
(iii) CSF findings: turbid appearance; raised pressure; neutrophilic pleocytosis; raised protein; low glucose (< ⅔ of blood glucose); positive Gram stain and culture.
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
(i) Morphologic features: diagnostic Reed–Sternberg cells — large binucleate/bilobed cells with prominent eosinophilic "owl-eye" nucleoli, on a reactive background of lymphocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells and histiocytes. Variants: mononuclear Hodgkin cell; lacunar cells (nodular sclerosis); popcorn/L&H cells (lymphocyte-predominant). Nodal architecture effaced; contiguous spread.
(ii) Types (WHO): Classical HL — nodular sclerosis (commonest), mixed cellularity (EBV-associated), lymphocyte-rich, lymphocyte-depleted (worst prognosis). Plus nodular lymphocyte-predominant HL (NLPHL).
(iii) Immunophenotype: classical RS cells CD15+, CD30+, PAX5 weak+, CD45−, usually CD20− (LMP1/EBV+ in mixed cellularity). NLPHL popcorn cells CD20+, CD45+, CD15−, CD30−.
Haematology — MCQs & Rapid Fire
interactiveA microcytic, hypochromic anaemia (low MCV, low MCH) is most commonly due to:
- AVitamin B12 deficiency
- BIron deficiency
- CAcute haemorrhage
- DHereditary spherocytosis
Auer rods on a peripheral film indicate:
- AAcute lymphoblastic leukaemia
- BAcute myeloid leukaemia
- CChronic lymphocytic leukaemia
- DMyelofibrosis
A macrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and megaloblastic marrow is caused by:
- AIron deficiency
- BVitamin B12 or folate deficiency
- CAnaemia of chronic disease
- DThalassaemia trait
The most rapidly fatal transfusion reaction is:
- AFebrile non-haemolytic
- BAcute haemolytic from ABO incompatibility
- CAllergic urticarial
- DDelayed haemolytic
The blast percentage in marrow/blood that defines acute leukaemia (WHO) is:
- A≥5%
- B≥10%
- C≥20%
- D≥50%
Spherocytes with a NEGATIVE direct antiglobulin test and raised osmotic fragility suggest:
- AWarm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
- BHereditary spherocytosis
- CG6PD deficiency
- DSickle cell disease
The Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) (BCR-ABL1) is the hallmark of:
- AAcute promyelocytic leukaemia
- BChronic myeloid leukaemia
- CHodgkin lymphoma
- DMyelodysplastic syndrome
Reed–Sternberg cells are diagnostic of:
- ABurkitt lymphoma
- BHodgkin lymphoma
- CChronic lymphocytic leukaemia
- DMultiple myeloma
Leukoerythroblastic film with tear-drop poikilocytes points to:
- AIron deficiency
- BMyelofibrosis / marrow infiltration
- CMegaloblastic anaemia
- DSideroblastic anaemia
TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury) is characterised by:
- AVolume overload with hypertension
- BNon-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema within 6 hours
- CDelayed jaundice at day 7
- DUrticaria and itching only
Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is mediated predominantly by:
- AIgM at 4°C
- BIgG at 37°C with a positive DAT
- CComplement alone
- DIgE
- Step 1 in any anaemia = MCV; step 2 = reticulocytes; step 3 = film.
- Microcytic → iron deficiency / thalassaemia; macrocytic → B12/folate.
- Auer rods = AML; ≥20% blasts defines acute leukaemia.
- HS: spherocytes, negative DAT, raised osmotic fragility.
- Warm AIHA = IgG at 37°C, positive DAT, spherocytes.
- ABO acute haemolytic reaction (IgM) is the most rapidly fatal.
- Febrile non-haemolytic is the commonest transfusion reaction.
- Reed–Sternberg (CD15+CD30+) = Hodgkin lymphoma.
- Philadelphia t(9;22) BCR-ABL1 = CML (imatinib target).
- Tear-drop cells + leukoerythroblastic film = myelofibrosis.
Clinical Chemistry
27 SAQsa) A middle-aged male involved in a motor vehicle accident. Next-day results: Na⁺ 130 mmol/L (135–145); K⁺ 5.4 mmol/L (3.5–5.0); Urea 19.4 mmol/L (2.8–8.1); Creatinine 301 µmol/L (54–115).
i) Comment on the results (2). ii) What is the diagnosis? Give reasons (3). iii) What other biochemical tests may be necessary? (7.5).
b) ICU patient: pH 7.26; HCO₃⁻ 13 mmol/L; PCO₂ 31 mmHg; Na⁺ 136; K⁺ 4.8; Cl⁻ 105.
i) What is the acid–base disturbance? Give reasons (3.5). ii) Calculate the anion gap and comment (3). iii) List any six possible causes of the above acid–base disturbance (6).
a) i) Comment: hyponatraemia (Na 130); hyperkalaemia (K 5.4); markedly raised urea (19.4) and creatinine (301) — i.e. azotaemia/renal impairment.
ii) Diagnosis: acute kidney injury (likely acute tubular necrosis from post-traumatic hypovolaemia ± rhabdomyolysis). Reasons — raised urea and creatinine with hyperkalaemia following major trauma.
iii) Other tests: urinalysis; urine sodium and osmolality (pre-renal vs intrinsic); creatine kinase (rhabdomyolysis); arterial blood gas; calcium and phosphate; hourly urine output; renal ultrasound (to exclude obstruction).
b) i) Acid–base disturbance: metabolic acidosis (low pH 7.26, low HCO₃⁻ 13) with partial respiratory compensation (low PCO₂ 31).
ii) Anion gap = Na⁻ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) = 136 − (105 + 13) = 18 mmol/L — a raised anion gap; i.e. high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis.
iii) Causes (MUDPILES): methanol; uraemia; diabetic ketoacidosis; paraldehyde; iron/isoniazid; lactic acidosis; ethylene glycol; salicylates.
- Raised urea + creatinine + hyperkalaemia after major trauma = acute kidney injury (ATN ± rhabdomyolysis).
- Anion gap = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻); here 136 − (105+13) = 18 → high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis.
- Always state compensation: low HCO₃⁻ with low pCO₂ = metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation.
- Order creatine kinase in crush/RTA cases to catch rhabdomyolysis.
- Uraemia raises the anion gap by retaining sulfate, phosphate and organic acids the kidney normally clears.
- Names hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, azotaemia
- Diagnosis AKI with post-traumatic ATN/rhabdomyolysis reasoning
- Lists ≥4 relevant follow-up tests (urinalysis, urine Na/osm, CK, ABG, Ca/PO₄, urine output, renal US)
- Identifies metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
- Correct anion-gap calculation (18) labelled as raised
- Six HAGMA causes (MUDPILES)
High-anion-gap causes → "MUDPILES": Methanol, Uraemia, DKA, Paraldehyde, Iron/INH, Lactate, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates.
An ICU patient has pH 7.26, HCO₃⁻ 13, pCO₂ 31, Na⁺ 136, Cl⁻ 105. The anion gap is:
- A6 (normal)
- B18 (raised)
- C31 (raised)
- DCannot be calculated
Which single test best confirms rhabdomyolysis as the cause of AKI after a road-traffic accident?
- ASerum creatinine
- BCreatine kinase
- CSerum potassium
- DUrine osmolality
- MUDPILES = high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis.
- Post-trauma AKI is usually ATN, often with rhabdomyolysis.
- Low HCO₃⁻ + low pCO₂ = metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation.
OCR of this page is partial. Results obtained from a 57-year-old man.
a) Describe the results indicating any abnormality (1). b) What is the possible cause of these results? (1.5). c) Describe the urine and blood tests that should be requested following these results (7). d) Outline other utilities of this test (3).
Note: the specific result values on this page were not legible in the source scan, so only the interpretive framework can be given.
a) Describe the results / abnormality: comment systematically on each analyte against its reference interval, stating the direction and magnitude of any deviation.
b) Possible cause: relate the pattern of abnormal analytes to the most likely underlying pathology (e.g. an endocrine, renal or hepatic cause depending on which values are deranged).
c) Follow-up urine and blood tests: targeted confirmatory tests — paired serum and urine measurements of the relevant analyte, plus function tests of the implicated organ system.
d) Other utilities of the test: its roles beyond diagnosis — screening, monitoring of treatment response, and prognostication.
- When the scan is unreadable, answer the framework: compare each analyte to its reference interval, state direction and magnitude.
- Name the four uses of any test: diagnosis, screening, monitoring treatment, prognosis.
- Pair serum and urine measurements of the same analyte to localise the lesion (e.g. serum vs urine osmolality/Na in sodium disorders).
- Systematic analyte-by-analyte interpretation against reference intervals
- Links abnormal pattern to a plausible organ/endocrine cause
- Names targeted confirmatory serum + urine tests
- States non-diagnostic uses: screening, monitoring, prognostication
Uses of a lab test → "DSMP": Diagnosis, Screening, Monitoring, Prognosis.
A test used to follow a known disease's response to treatment over time is being used for:
- ADiagnosis
- BScreening
- CMonitoring
- DPrognostication
- Interpret every analyte against its own reference interval.
- One test can serve diagnosis, screening, monitoring and prognosis.
A 65-year-old male with long-standing hypertension presents with lower-limb oedema and generalised weakness (lab results tabulated on scan).
a) Diagnosis with reasons (2.5). b) Likely acid–base disorder + expected BGA (3). c) Explain the parathyroid hormone result (2). d) Two expected urinalysis findings (3). e) Two other plasma biochemical findings (2).
a) Chronic kidney disease from long-standing hypertension (hypertensive nephrosclerosis), with secondary hyperparathyroidism. The raised PTH, raised ALP (renal osteodystrophy) and low calcium point to a chronic rather than acute process; acute-on-chronic injury is possible.
b) Acid–base: metabolic acidosis — low pH, low bicarbonate, normal PCO₂.
c) High PTH: low calcium triggers compensatory PTH secretion to restore calcium.
d) Urinalysis: high creatinine/urea, RBC casts, WBC casts, proteinuria.
e) Plasma: elevated inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP); elevated magnesium.
- Raised PTH + raised ALP + low calcium = chronic process (secondary hyperparathyroidism of CKD), not acute injury.
- Long-standing hypertension → hypertensive nephrosclerosis → chronic kidney disease.
- The failing kidney retains phosphate and cannot make 1,25-(OH)₂ vitamin D → hypocalcaemia → compensatory PTH rise.
- Metabolic acidosis in CKD reflects loss of renal H⁺ excretion and bicarbonate generation.
- Urinalysis in glomerular disease: proteinuria with RBC and WBC casts.
- CKD from hypertensive nephrosclerosis, with secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO₃⁻, normal pCO₂)
- Explains high PTH as compensatory response to low calcium
- Two urinalysis findings (proteinuria, casts, raised urea/creatinine)
- Two further plasma findings
CKD mineral picture → "P⁻up, Ca-down, PTH-up": phosphate rises, calcium falls, PTH climbs to compensate.
In chronic kidney disease, the low serum calcium and high PTH arise mainly because the kidney:
- AExcretes too much PTH
- BFails to make active vitamin D and retains phosphate
- COver-produces calcitonin
- DLoses calcium in urine
Which combination best distinguishes chronic from acute kidney injury?
- AHigh urea and creatinine
- BHyperkalaemia
- CRaised PTH with raised ALP and low calcium
- DMetabolic acidosis
- CKD → ↑phosphate, ↓vit D → ↓Ca → ↑PTH (secondary hyperparathyroidism).
- ↑PTH + ↑ALP + ↓Ca = chronic, not acute.
- CKD gives a metabolic acidosis.
Serum biochemistry for a 51-year-old man (results tabulated on scan).
a) Giving reasons, classify the type of diabetes (3). b) Describe the atherogenic lipid derangements (3). c) Additional biochemistry tests, with reasons (6.5).
a) Type 2 diabetes mellitus — age 51 with risk factors (elevated total cholesterol, low HDL).
b) Atherogenic lipids: elevated total cholesterol, low HDL, high triglycerides — the raised TG/cholesterol accelerate atheroma formation while low HDL removes less, further accelerating it.
c) Additional tests:
- Fructosamine — glycaemic control
- U/E/Cr — kidney damage
- Microalbumin — microalbuminuria
- OGTT — confirm diagnosis
- Fasting blood sugar — confirm diabetes
- Atherogenic lipid triad: high triglycerides, low HDL, raised total/LDL cholesterol.
- Type 2 DM is the default in a middle-aged adult with metabolic risk factors and no ketotic crisis.
- Justify further tests by what they add: HbA1c/fructosamine (control), U/E/Cr + microalbumin (nephropathy), OGTT (confirm).
- Low HDL means less reverse cholesterol transport, so atheroma clears more slowly while high LDL/TG deposit more.
- Classifies as type 2 DM with reasons (age, metabolic risk factors)
- Describes atherogenic lipids: ↑TG, ↓HDL, ↑cholesterol/LDL
- Lists further tests with reasons (HbA1c/fructosamine, U/E/Cr, microalbumin, OGTT, FBS)
Atherogenic lipids → "TLC": Triglycerides up, HDL Low, Cholesterol/LDL up.
Which lipid pattern is most atherogenic?
- AHigh HDL, low LDL
- BHigh triglycerides, low HDL, high LDL
- CLow triglycerides, high HDL
- DNormal profile
Best test to detect early diabetic kidney damage:
- ASerum creatinine
- BUrine microalbumin
- CFasting glucose
- DHbA1c
- Atherogenic triad: ↑TG, ↓HDL, ↑LDL.
- Microalbumin = earliest diabetic nephropathy marker.
- HbA1c reflects ~3 months of glycaemic control.
A 13-year-old female with random blood glucose of 38.0 mmol/L.
a) Expected dipstick urinalysis findings, with reasons (3). b) Possible cause, with reasons (2.5). c) Three biochemical tests with expected findings (7).
a) Urinalysis: glucose (blood glucose exceeds renal reabsorption threshold); ketone bodies (ketogenesis from lipid utilisation); protein/albumin (nephropathy in prolonged diabetes).
b) Cause: type 1 diabetes mellitus — early age of onset with hyperglycaemia (type 1a autoimmune destruction of islet β-cells; type 1b idiopathic).
c) Tests: fasting blood glucose (expected >7.0 mmol/L); OGTT (2-hr value markedly elevated); HbA1c (diagnostic if ≥6.5%; also indicates chronicity).
- New hyperglycaemia in a 13-year-old = type 1 DM (autoimmune β-cell destruction) until proven otherwise.
- Glycosuria appears once blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold (~10 mmol/L).
- Insulin deficiency drives lipolysis and ketogenesis → ketonuria; a very high glucose (38) risks DKA.
- HbA1c ≥6.5% is diagnostic and also shows chronicity; OGTT and fasting glucose confirm.
- Dipstick: glucose (threshold exceeded) + ketones (ketogenesis) ± protein
- Cause: type 1 DM with reasoning (young age, marked hyperglycaemia)
- Three tests with expected findings: FBS >7, OGTT elevated, HbA1c ≥6.5%
Glucose appears in the urine only when blood glucose exceeds the:
- ARenal threshold (~10 mmol/L)
- BDiagnostic threshold for diabetes
- CFasting reference range
- DHbA1c target
An HbA1c is diagnostic of diabetes at a value of:
- A≥5.0%
- B≥5.7%
- C≥6.5%
- D≥8.0%
- Child + new severe hyperglycaemia = type 1 DM.
- Glycosuria once glucose > renal threshold (~10 mmol/L).
- Ketonuria signals insulin-deficient ketogenesis (DKA risk).
Serum for a 52-year-old man — Na 110 (135–145); K 4.8; Total bilirubin 540 µmol/L (3.4–20.5); Direct bilirubin 350 µmol/L (0–8.6); Albumin 20 g/L (34–54); Random glucose 2.4 mmol/L (3.5–7.8); AFP 7000 ng/mL; Hepatitis B surface antigen positive.
a) Clinical diagnosis with reasons (4). b) Type of hyponatraemia, explanation, expected urine sodium (5). c) Explain the glucose finding via liver physiology (2). d) Expected gross liver appearance and how it explains the bilirubinaemia (3.5).
a) Hepatocellular carcinoma secondary to cirrhosis from viral hepatitis B — markedly raised AFP; HBsAg-positive active infection; low albumin (reduced synthetic function).
b) Severe hypervolaemic (dilutional) hyponatraemia: cirrhosis causes splanchnic vasodilatation with secondary hyperaldosteronism and ADH release → avid water and sodium retention with ascites. Urine sodium is characteristically LOW (avid renal retention), and very low in hepatorenal syndrome. This is a true dilutional hyponatraemia, not pseudohyponatraemia.
c) Loss of gluconeogenesis — the damaged liver cannot generate glucose from glycogenolysis, fats and proteins → hypoglycaemia.
d) Cirrhosis with lesion(s); mixed/conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia from impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin (cirrhosis) and reduced conjugation by tumour cells.
- AFP 7000 + HBsAg positive + low albumin = hepatocellular carcinoma on a background of HBV cirrhosis.
- The hyponatraemia is dilutional (hypervolaemic) with LOW urine sodium — not pseudohyponatraemia.
- Cirrhosis → splanchnic vasodilation → low effective volume → ADH/aldosterone → water retention → dilutional ↓Na⁺.
- The damaged liver can't do gluconeogenesis/glycogenolysis → hypoglycaemia (glucose 2.4).
- Mixed/conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (direct 350 of total 540) from impaired excretion in cirrhosis.
- HCC secondary to HBV cirrhosis (AFP, HBsAg, low albumin)
- Dilutional hypervolaemic hyponatraemia; low urine Na; not pseudohyponatraemia
- Hypoglycaemia via loss of hepatic gluconeogenesis
- Cirrhotic liver with conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia explanation
HCC screen → "AFP + HBsAg": alpha-fetoprotein up on a hepatitis-B background.
A cirrhotic with ascites, Na⁺ 110 and LOW urine sodium has which type of hyponatraemia?
- AHypovolaemic
- BDilutional (hypervolaemic)
- CPseudohyponatraemia
- DEuvolaemic (SIADH)
A tumour marker markedly raised in hepatocellular carcinoma is:
- ACA 19-9
- BCEA
- CAFP
- DPSA
- AFP ↑↑ + HBsAg⁺ = HCC on HBV cirrhosis.
- Cirrhotic hyponatraemia is dilutional with low urine Na.
- Failing liver → hypoglycaemia (lost gluconeogenesis).
a) Two mechanisms the kidneys use to regulate acid–base balance (6). b) Use these to explain the acid–base derangement in a 24-year-old female with severe vomiting (6.5).
a) Renal mechanisms: (1) reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate and generation of new bicarbonate in the proximal tubule; (2) excretion of H⁺ as titratable acid (buffered by phosphate) and as ammonium (NH₄⁺) in the distal nephron.
b) Severe vomiting: loss of gastric HCl produces a hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis. Accompanying volume depletion drives avid Na⁺ (and HCO₃⁻) reabsorption and increased H⁺ secretion, so the kidney excretes acid urine despite the alkalosis (paradoxical aciduria), which maintains it. Hypokalaemia further promotes H⁺ secretion.
- Severe vomiting → loss of gastric HCl → hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
- Paradoxical aciduria: the urine is acid despite systemic alkalosis.
- Two renal levers: proximal HCO₃⁻ reabsorption + new HCO₃⁻ generation; distal H⁺ excretion as titratable acid and NH₄⁺.
- Volume/Cl⁻ depletion forces Na⁺/HCO₃⁻ reabsorption and H⁺ secretion, maintaining the alkalosis.
- Hypokalaemia accompanies the picture and further drives distal H⁺ secretion.
- Two renal mechanisms: bicarbonate handling; H⁺ excretion as titratable acid + ammonium
- Vomiting → hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
- Explains paradoxical aciduria from volume depletion
- Notes hypokalaemia role
Distal acid excretion → "T & A": Titratable acid (phosphate-buffered) + Ammonium (NH₄⁺).
Severe protracted vomiting classically produces:
- AHigh-anion-gap metabolic acidosis
- BHypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
- CRespiratory acidosis
- DNormal-anion-gap acidosis
Why is the urine acidic in a vomiting patient who is systemically alkalotic?
- AExcess bicarbonate excretion
- BVolume/Cl⁻ depletion forces Na⁺/HCO₃⁻ reabsorption and H⁺ secretion
- CRenal tubular acidosis
- DIncreased ammonia excretion only
- Vomiting → hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
- Paradoxical aciduria maintains the alkalosis.
- Kidneys buffer acid as titratable acid + ammonium.
A 40-year-old male, 3-month colicky left-lumbar pain; ureteric calculus suspected. Discuss urinary calculi: i) predisposing factors (5), ii) biochemical tests (7.5).
i) Predisposing factors: dehydration (concentrated urine); diet (high salt, animal protein, oxalate); family history; obesity; medical conditions (hyperparathyroidism, gout, UTIs).
ii) Biochemical tests: urinalysis (blood, crystals, infection); electrolyte profile (e.g. calcium); creatinine (kidney function); uric acid (24-hr urine); stone analysis (composition).
- Calcium (oxalate/phosphate) stones are commonest and radio-opaque; uric-acid stones are radiolucent.
- Struvite (Mg-NH₄-PO₄) stones form in urea-splitting infections (Proteus) and can be staghorn.
- Dehydration is the universal risk factor; work-up must include stone analysis and a metabolic screen (Ca, urate).
- Recurrent stones warrant checking for hyperparathyroidism (raised calcium).
- Five predisposing factors (dehydration, diet, family history, obesity, medical conditions)
- Biochemical tests: urinalysis, calcium, creatinine, urate (24-h), stone analysis
Stone risks → "DDFOM": Dehydration, Diet, Family history, Obesity, Medical conditions (hyperparathyroid, gout, UTI).
Which urinary stone is characteristically RADIOLUCENT on plain film?
- ACalcium oxalate
- BStruvite
- CUric acid
- DCalcium phosphate
Staghorn calculi in the setting of Proteus urinary infection are typically:
- AUric acid
- BCystine
- CStruvite (Mg-NH₄-PO₄)
- DCalcium oxalate
- Calcium stones = commonest, radio-opaque.
- Uric-acid stones = radiolucent, acid urine, gout.
- Struvite = infection stones (Proteus), staghorn.
Serum biochemistry for a 56-year-old man with severe dyspepsia — Total bilirubin 14 µmol/L (5.1–19); Direct 6.5; ALT 35 U/L (0–40); AST 128 U/L (0–34); ALP 72 (40–150); GGT 41 (0–50); high-sensitivity cTnI 3400 ng/L (<19); NT-proBNP 820 pg/mL (0–300).
a) Likely diagnosis with reasons (2.5). b) Explain the AST result (2). c) Three biochemical tests for management, with reasons (6). d) Two conditions associated with raised NT-proBNP (2).
a) Acute myocardial infarction leading to heart failure — greatly elevated cTnI (myocardial infarct) and NT-proBNP (ventricular stress in heart failure).
b) AST: raised because AST is released from necrotic myocardium (cardiac muscle is rich in AST); it was historically used as a cardiac marker. The normal ALT confirms the source is not hepatocellular.
c) Tests: lipid profile (hyperlipidaemia — CAD risk); renal function tests (kidney disease/hypertension risk); OGTT (diabetes — mortality risk factor).
d) Raised NT-proBNP: heart failure; ventricular stress/strain conditions.
- cTnI 3400 (ref <19) = myocardial infarction; NT-proBNP 820 = ventricular stress/heart failure.
- Troponin is the most sensitive and specific marker of myocardial injury.
- AST is raised because necrotic myocardium (rich in AST) releases it; normal ALT confirms the source is not liver.
- Manage the risk factors: lipid profile, renal function, OGTT/HbA1c.
- Diagnosis: MI leading to heart failure (raised cTnI + NT-proBNP)
- Explains AST from necrotic myocardium; normal ALT excludes liver
- Three management tests with reasons (lipids, RFT, OGTT)
- Two causes of raised NT-proBNP
Marker timing → "My-CK-Trop": Myoglobin earliest, CK-MB re-infarction, Troponin most specific + longest.
The most sensitive and specific biomarker of acute myocardial injury is:
- AAST
- BCK-MB
- CTroponin I/T
- DMyoglobin
Which marker is most useful for detecting RE-infarction a few days after an MI?
- ATroponin (still elevated)
- BCK-MB
- CNT-proBNP
- DALP
- Troponin = most sensitive/specific for MI.
- NT-proBNP rises with ventricular stress/heart failure.
- CK-MB re-rise = re-infarction.
Identify the plasma proteins in the alpha (α) regions of a plasma-protein electrophoresis strip and describe their clinical applications.
- α1 region: α1-antitrypsin (low in panacinar emphysema and liver disease); α1-antichymotrypsin; α1-acid glycoprotein (orosomucoid, an acute-phase protein); α1-fetoprotein; HDL/α-lipoprotein
- α2 region: haptoglobin (binds free haemoglobin; low in intravascular haemolysis); α2-macroglobulin (raised in nephrotic syndrome); ceruloplasmin (copper transport; low in Wilson disease)
Note: albumin migrates as its own band before α1 and is not an alpha-region protein; CRP runs in the gamma region. Both were miscategorised in the original card.
- α₁ band = α₁-antitrypsin (low in panacinar emphysema and liver disease).
- α₂ band = haptoglobin (low in intravascular haemolysis), α₂-macroglobulin, ceruloplasmin (low in Wilson disease).
- Albumin runs as its own band before α₁ and is NOT an alpha protein; CRP runs in the γ region (both were miscategorised in the original card).
- Free haemoglobin from haemolysis is mopped up by haptoglobin, so serum haptoglobin falls.
- α₁: α₁-antitrypsin (+ α₁-acid glycoprotein, α₁-antichymotrypsin) with clinical link
- α₂: haptoglobin, α₂-macroglobulin, ceruloplasmin with clinical links
- Correctly excludes albumin (own band) and CRP (γ region)
α₂ trio → "Hap-Mac-Cer": Haptoglobin, α₂-Macroglobulin, Ceruloplasmin.
Serum haptoglobin is characteristically LOW in:
- ANephrotic syndrome
- BIntravascular haemolysis
- CAcute inflammation
- DWilson disease
Ceruloplasmin, an α₂ protein, is characteristically LOW in:
- AWilson disease
- BEmphysema
- CMyeloma
- DNephrotic syndrome
- α₁ = α₁-antitrypsin.
- α₂ = haptoglobin, α₂-macroglobulin, ceruloplasmin.
- Immunoglobulins run in γ; albumin has its own band.
a) Describe the differences in CSF biochemistry findings for acute viral versus acute bacterial meningitis (6.5). b) Describe any three contraindications of lumbar puncture (6).
a) CSF biochemistry — viral vs bacterial meningitis:
- Acute viral: clear appearance; normal or mildly raised protein; normal glucose; lymphocytic pleocytosis; normal/mildly raised opening pressure.
- Acute bacterial: turbid/cloudy; markedly raised protein; low glucose (<50% of serum); neutrophilic pleocytosis; raised opening pressure.
b) Contraindications to lumbar puncture: raised intracranial pressure / space-occupying lesion (risk of coning); coagulopathy or thrombocytopenia; local skin/soft-tissue infection at the puncture site (also cardiorespiratory instability).
- Bacterial CSF: turbid, ↑↑protein, LOW glucose (<50% serum), neutrophils.
- Viral CSF: clear, normal/mildly ↑protein, NORMAL glucose, lymphocytes.
- The two discriminators worth the marks: glucose and cell type.
- LP contraindications: raised ICP/space-occupying lesion, coagulopathy/thrombocytopenia, local infection at the site.
- Bacteria consume CSF glucose and provoke a neutrophilic response; viruses spare glucose and recruit lymphocytes.
- Correct bacterial vs viral profile across ≥3 parameters (appearance, protein, glucose, cells, pressure)
- Three valid LP contraindications
LP contraindications → "ICU": Increased intracranial pressure/mass, Coagulopathy, Underlying skin infection at the site.
Which CSF finding most strongly favours BACTERIAL over viral meningitis?
- AClear appearance
- BLymphocytic pleocytosis
- CLow glucose with neutrophils
- DNormal opening pressure
An absolute contraindication to immediate lumbar puncture is:
- AFever
- BHeadache
- CRaised intracranial pressure from a mass lesion
- DNeck stiffness
- Bacterial CSF: turbid, ↑protein, ↓glucose, neutrophils.
- Viral CSF: clear, normal glucose, lymphocytes.
- No LP with raised ICP, coagulopathy, or local infection.
Write short notes on: a) major factors affecting reference intervals (6); b) measures of central tendency in data (4.5); c) removal of outliers in biological data (2).
a) Factors affecting reference intervals: age; sex; ethnicity/race; physiological state (e.g. pregnancy); diet; diurnal (time-of-day) variation; posture; and the analytical method used.
b) Measures of central tendency: mean; median; mode.
c) Removal of outliers: statistical exclusion methods — Dixon's Q test; Tukey's rule (values beyond 1.5 × IQR from the quartiles); or excluding values more than 3 standard deviations from the mean.
- Reference-interval factors: age, sex, ethnicity, physiological state (pregnancy), diet, diurnal variation, posture, analytical method.
- Central tendency = mean, median, mode.
- Reference intervals are usually the central 95% (mean ± ~2 SD) of a healthy reference population, so 5% of normals fall outside by definition.
- Outlier removal: Dixon's Q, Tukey's 1.5 × IQR rule, or >3 SD from the mean.
- ≥5 factors affecting reference intervals
- Three measures of central tendency (mean, median, mode)
- At least one valid outlier-removal method
Central tendency → the "3 M's": Mean, Median, Mode.
A conventional reference interval usually spans the central:
- A50% of the reference population
- B68%
- C95%
- D99.7%
Which is a measure of central tendency rather than dispersion?
- AStandard deviation
- BInterquartile range
- CMedian
- DVariance
- Reference interval = central 95% of healthy population.
- Central tendency: mean, median, mode.
- Tukey's rule: outliers beyond 1.5 × IQR.
Discuss the laboratory tests used to evaluate pancreatic function.
Exocrine function: serum amylase and lipase (raised in acute pancreatitis; lipase is more specific); faecal elastase-1 (low in chronic pancreatic insufficiency); 72-hour faecal fat (steatorrhoea); faecal chymotrypsin; the secretin-cholecystokinin stimulation test (direct measure of duct and enzyme output).
Endocrine function: fasting glucose, HbA1c and OGTT (islet/beta-cell function); C-peptide.
Note: the source answer was cut off on the scan; these are the standard tests, to be verified against notes.
- Exocrine: amylase and lipase (lipase more specific) rise in acute pancreatitis; faecal elastase-1 is low in chronic insufficiency.
- Endocrine: fasting glucose, HbA1c, OGTT and C-peptide assess islet/β-cell function.
- Split the answer explicitly into exocrine and endocrine to bank both halves of the marks.
- The secretin-CCK stimulation test is the direct measure of duct bicarbonate and enzyme output.
- Exocrine tests: amylase/lipase, faecal elastase-1, faecal fat, secretin-CCK test
- Endocrine tests: glucose, HbA1c, OGTT, C-peptide
- Structured into exocrine vs endocrine
Which enzyme is MORE specific for acute pancreatitis?
- AAmylase
- BLipase
- CALP
- DGGT
The best marker of chronic exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is a LOW:
- ASerum amylase
- BFaecal elastase-1
- CHbA1c
- DC-peptide
- Lipase > amylase for specificity in pancreatitis.
- Low faecal elastase-1 = chronic exocrine insufficiency.
- C-peptide reflects endogenous insulin/β-cell function.
A 22-year-old male with one week of flu-like symptoms, anorexia, nausea, constipation; abdominal tenderness; dark urine; elevated ALT and AST.
a) Serological tests to screen for viral hepatitis (4). b) If Hepatitis B positive, which serological tests to monitor his condition, with justification (8). c) If he develops chronic Hepatitis B, which serological markers would be present (3).
a) Screening serology for viral hepatitis: anti-HAV IgM; HBsAg; anti-HCV; anti-HEV IgM.
b) If HBsAg positive — monitoring tests (with justification): HBsAg (persistence beyond 6 months indicates chronicity); HBeAg (marker of active replication and high infectivity); anti-HBe (seroconversion, falling infectivity); HBV-DNA viral load (quantifies replication and response to therapy); anti-HBc IgM (acute) versus IgG (established/past); serial ALT to track hepatocellular activity.
c) Chronic hepatitis B markers present: HBsAg positive >6 months; anti-HBc IgG; HBeAg or anti-HBe; detectable HBV-DNA.
- HBsAg persisting >6 months defines chronic hepatitis B.
- HBeAg and HBV-DNA mark active replication and high infectivity.
- During the window period (HBsAg gone, anti-HBs not yet up), anti-HBc IgM is the only positive marker.
- anti-HBs indicates recovery/immunity (or successful vaccination).
- Screening panel: anti-HAV IgM, HBsAg, anti-HCV, anti-HEV IgM.
- Screening serology named (anti-HAV IgM, HBsAg, anti-HCV, anti-HEV IgM)
- Monitoring set with justification (HBsAg, HBeAg, anti-HBe, HBV-DNA, anti-HBc IgM/IgG, serial ALT)
- Chronic HBV markers: HBsAg >6 mo, anti-HBc IgG, HBeAg/anti-HBe, detectable HBV-DNA
HBV read-out → "s-e-c": HBsAg = infected, HBeAg = replicating, anti-HBc = exposed (IgM acute, IgG old/chronic).
Chronic hepatitis B is defined by persistence beyond 6 months of:
- Aanti-HBs
- BHBsAg
- Canti-HBc IgM
- Danti-HAV IgM
During the hepatitis-B 'window period' the only positive marker is often:
- AHBsAg
- Banti-HBs
- Canti-HBc IgM
- DHBeAg
Which pair best indicates active viral replication and high infectivity?
- Aanti-HBs + anti-HBc IgG
- BHBeAg + HBV-DNA
- Canti-HBe + normal ALT
- DHBsAg + anti-HBs
- HBsAg >6 months = chronic HBV.
- HBeAg + HBV-DNA = replicating/infectious.
- anti-HBs = immunity; anti-HBc IgM = window/acute.
Serum for a 19-year-old male (Na 135–145; total & direct bilirubin raised; ALP 105 U/L; low albumin — as tabulated on the scan).
a) Type of hyperbilirubinaemia (2.5). b) Likely clinical diagnosis (2.5). c) Reasons supporting the diagnosis (3). d) Expected urine findings (2.5). e) Two confirmatory laboratory tests (2).
a) Type of hyperbilirubinaemia: conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinaemia — both total and direct bilirubin are raised.
b) Likely clinical diagnosis: a cholestatic/hepatocellular jaundice — the raised direct bilirubin with raised ALP indicates cholestasis, while the low albumin points to impaired hepatic synthetic function (chronic hepatocellular disease).
c) Reasons: conjugated bilirubin is water-soluble and appears in urine; raised ALP reflects cholestasis; low albumin reflects reduced hepatic protein synthesis.
d) Expected urine findings: dark urine with bilirubinuria; urobilinogen variable (reduced in obstruction, raised in hepatocellular disease).
e) Two confirmatory tests: full liver-function panel (ALT/AST, GGT) and abdominal ultrasound (± viral hepatitis serology).
- Both total and direct bilirubin raised = conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinaemia.
- Raised direct bilirubin + raised ALP = cholestatic pattern; low albumin points to chronic hepatocellular disease.
- Conjugated bilirubin is water-soluble, so it spills into urine (bilirubinuria, dark urine).
- Urobilinogen falls in obstruction but rises in hepatocellular disease.
- Confirm with the full LFT panel (ALT/AST, GGT) and abdominal ultrasound ± hepatitis serology.
- Names conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinaemia
- Cholestatic/hepatocellular diagnosis with reasoning (↑direct, ↑ALP, ↓albumin)
- Urine: bilirubinuria, dark urine, variable urobilinogen
- Two confirmatory tests (LFT panel, ultrasound)
Which bilirubin in urine? → "Conjugated = Comes out" (water-soluble → bilirubinuria). Unconjugated stays albumin-bound.
Bilirubin appears in the urine only when it is:
- AUnconjugated (albumin-bound)
- BConjugated (water-soluble)
- CBound to haptoglobin
- DPresent as biliverdin
Raised direct bilirubin with a markedly raised ALP suggests:
- AHaemolysis
- BGilbert syndrome
- CA cholestatic pattern
- DPre-hepatic jaundice
- Conjugated bilirubin is water-soluble → bilirubinuria.
- ↑direct bilirubin + ↑ALP = cholestatic.
- Low albumin = impaired hepatic synthesis (chronicity).
The pancreas synthesises and secretes digestive enzymes. Give a brief description of how the secretory function is regulated.
Pancreatic secretion is regulated by neural and hormonal mechanisms over three phases (cephalic, gastric, intestinal):
- Neural (cephalic phase): the sight, smell and taste of food trigger vagal (parasympathetic) stimulation → an enzyme-rich secretion.
- Secretin: released from duodenal S cells in response to acidic chyme → stimulates ductal cells to secrete a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid that neutralises acid.
- Cholecystokinin (CCK): released from duodenal I cells in response to fats and amino acids → stimulates acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes and causes gallbladder contraction.
- Gastrin (gastric phase) also contributes to enzyme secretion.
- Secretin (from S cells, acid stimulus) → watery bicarbonate-rich fluid from duct cells.
- CCK (from I cells, fat/amino-acid stimulus) → enzyme-rich secretion from acinar cells + gallbladder contraction.
- Three phases: cephalic (vagal), gastric (gastrin), intestinal (secretin + CCK dominate).
- Vagal (parasympathetic) stimulation from sight/smell/taste gives an early enzyme-rich secretion.
- Neural (cephalic/vagal) control described
- Secretin → bicarbonate-rich ductal fluid
- CCK → enzyme-rich acinar secretion + gallbladder contraction
- Notes gastrin/phases
Duct vs acinus → "Secretin = Soda (bicarbonate); CCK = Cook (enzymes)".
The watery, bicarbonate-rich pancreatic secretion is stimulated mainly by:
- ACholecystokinin
- BSecretin
- CGastrin
- DSomatostatin
Cholecystokinin from duodenal I cells primarily causes:
- ABicarbonate secretion
- BEnzyme secretion and gallbladder contraction
- CGastric acid secretion
- DInhibition of the pancreas
- Secretin → bicarbonate (duct cells).
- CCK → enzymes + gallbladder contraction (acinar cells).
- Three phases: cephalic, gastric, intestinal.
5a) A middle-aged male after a motor-vehicle accident — Na 130 (135–145); K 5.4 (3.5–5.0); Urea 19.4 (2.8–8.1); Creatinine 301 µmol/L (54–115). (i) Comment (2); (ii) diagnosis with reasons (3); (iii) other biochemical tests (7.5). 5b) ICU BGA — pH 7.26; HCO₃⁻ 13; PCO₂ 31 mmHg (35–45); Na 136; K 4.8; Cl⁻ 105. (i) Acid–base disturbance with reasons (3.5); (ii) calculate the anion gap and comment (3); (iii) six possible causes (6).
5a) Trauma electrolytes: (i) Comment — hyponatraemia (Na 130), hyperkalaemia (K 5.4), grossly raised urea (19.4) and creatinine (301) = azotaemia. (ii) Diagnosis — acute kidney injury (post-traumatic ATN ± rhabdomyolysis); reasons: raised urea/creatinine with hyperkalaemia after trauma. (iii) Other tests — urinalysis, urine Na/osmolality, creatine kinase, ABG, calcium/phosphate, urine output, renal ultrasound.
5b) ICU blood-gas: (i) Disturbance — metabolic acidosis (low pH 7.26, low HCO₃⁻ 13) with partial respiratory compensation (low PCO₂ 31). (ii) Anion gap = 136 − (105 + 13) = 18 mmol/L (raised → high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis). (iii) Six causes (MUDPILES): methanol, uraemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, paraldehyde, iron/isoniazid, lactic acidosis, ethylene glycol, salicylates.
- Post-trauma AKI: hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, azotaemia (urea 19.4, creatinine 301).
- Anion gap 136 − (105+13) = 18 → high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation.
- This vignette repeats across papers (see also this discipline's trauma/ICU cards) — learn the numbers cold.
- Uraemic acidosis adds retained sulfate/phosphate/organic acids → widened anion gap.
- Comment: hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, azotaemia
- AKI (ATN ± rhabdomyolysis) with reasons
- Follow-up tests listed (urinalysis, urine Na/osm, CK, ABG, Ca/PO₄, US)
- Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
- Anion gap 18, labelled raised
- Six MUDPILES causes
Anion-gap acidosis → "MUDPILES" (see chem1). Compensation check → Winter's formula.
Winter's formula (expected pCO₂ = 1.5 × HCO₃⁻ + 8 ± 2) is used to assess:
- ARenal function
- BRespiratory compensation in metabolic acidosis
- CThe anion gap
- DOxygenation
A high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis after trauma is most likely due to:
- AExcess chloride
- BLactic acidosis and/or uraemia
- CVomiting
- DDiuretics
- Trauma AKI: ↓Na, ↑K, azotaemia.
- Gap 18 = high-anion-gap acidosis.
- Winter's formula checks respiratory compensation.
Nephrolithiasis: causes and complications; risk factors.
Causes (by stone type): calcium oxalate/phosphate stones (hypercalciuria, hypercalcaemia, hyperoxaluria) — commonest; struvite stones (urea-splitting infections, e.g. Proteus); uric-acid stones (hyperuricaemia/gout, acidic urine); cystine stones (cystinuria).
Risk factors: low fluid intake / dehydration; recurrent urinary infection; hyperparathyroidism; gout; diet high in oxalate, animal protein or salt; immobilisation; family history.
Complications: urinary obstruction and hydronephrosis; infection (pyelonephritis); haematuria; renal colic; chronic kidney disease/renal failure.
- Calcium (oxalate/phosphate) = commonest; struvite = infection (Proteus); uric acid = gout/acid urine; cystine = inherited.
- Low fluid intake/dehydration is the leading modifiable risk.
- Complications: obstruction → hydronephrosis, infection/pyelonephritis, haematuria, renal colic, CKD.
- Stone types with causes
- Risk factors (dehydration, infection, hyperparathyroidism, gout, diet, family history)
- Complications (obstruction/hydronephrosis, infection, haematuria, CKD)
Stone types → "Calcium Struts Up Cystine": Calcium, Struvite, Uric acid, Cystine.
The commonest type of urinary calculus is:
- AStruvite
- BUric acid
- CCalcium oxalate/phosphate
- DCystine
A recognised complication of an obstructing ureteric stone is:
- AHydronephrosis
- BHyperkalaemia only
- CHyperthyroidism
- DCirrhosis
- Calcium stones commonest; struvite from infection.
- Dehydration is the leading risk factor.
- Obstruction → hydronephrosis → CKD.
a) Two mechanisms by which the kidneys regulate acid–base imbalance; in severe vomiting, describe the acid–base imbalance based on those mechanisms. b) Five endocrine causes of hypertension and, based on the causes, the biochemical tests you would request.
a) Renal regulation of acid–base: (1) reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate and generation of new bicarbonate in the proximal tubule; (2) excretion of H⁺ as titratable acid (buffered by phosphate) and as ammonium (NH₄⁺). In severe vomiting, loss of gastric HCl produces a metabolic alkalosis; the volume depletion that accompanies it drives avid Na⁺ (and HCO₃⁻) reabsorption and H⁺ secretion, giving the characteristic paradoxical aciduria that maintains the alkalosis.
b) Endocrine causes of hypertension + tests:
- Phaeochromocytoma → plasma/urine metanephrines and catecholamines.
- Cushing's syndrome → dexamethasone suppression test, 24-h urinary free cortisol.
- Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) → aldosterone:renin ratio, serum potassium.
- Hyperthyroidism → TSH and free T4.
- Acromegaly → IGF-1, growth-hormone/OGTT suppression.
- Vomiting → metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria (renal H⁺ secretion driven by volume depletion).
- Five endocrine causes of hypertension each have a signature test.
- Phaeo → metanephrines; Cushing → dexamethasone suppression/urinary free cortisol; Conn → aldosterone:renin ratio; hyperthyroid → TSH/T4; acromegaly → IGF-1.
- Kidneys handle acid via bicarbonate reabsorption/generation and H⁺ excretion (titratable acid + ammonium).
- Two renal acid-base mechanisms
- Vomiting → metabolic alkalosis + paradoxical aciduria
- Five endocrine causes of hypertension each paired with the correct test
Endocrine hypertension → "PCC-HA": Phaeo, Cushing, Conn, Hyperthyroid, Acromegaly.
The first-line screening test for Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is:
- A24-h urinary cortisol
- BAldosterone:renin ratio
- CPlasma metanephrines
- DIGF-1
Screening test for phaeochromocytoma:
- APlasma/urine metanephrines
- BDexamethasone suppression
- CAldosterone:renin ratio
- DTSH
- Conn → aldosterone:renin ratio.
- Phaeo → plasma/urine metanephrines.
- Cushing → dexamethasone suppression / urinary free cortisol.
A 58-year-old man collapsed; first differential is acute myocardial infarction. a) Biochemical tests to confirm or exclude, with expected findings (6.5). b) Three biochemical tests to assess underlying risk for AMI (6).
a) Tests to confirm/exclude AMI (with expected findings): cardiac troponin I or T — the most sensitive and specific marker, rising 3–6 h after injury and peaking at ~24 h (raised confirms myocardial injury); CK-MB — rises 3–6 h and normalises by 48–72 h, useful for re-infarction (raised); myoglobin — earliest but non-specific.
b) Three tests for underlying risk: fasting lipid profile (total cholesterol, LDL, HDL, triglycerides); fasting glucose / HbA1c (diabetes); high-sensitivity CRP (or homocysteine).
- Troponin I/T is the most sensitive and specific test to confirm/exclude MI; it rises 3–6 h and peaks ~24 h.
- CK-MB rises 3–6 h and normalises by 48–72 h (useful for re-infarction); myoglobin is earliest but non-specific.
- Risk work-up: fasting lipids, fasting glucose/HbA1c, hs-CRP (or homocysteine).
- Necrotic myocytes leak troponin over days, giving a long diagnostic window.
- Confirmatory tests with expected findings (troponin, CK-MB, myoglobin timings)
- Three risk tests (lipids, glucose/HbA1c, hs-CRP)
Marker order → "My-CK-Trop": Myoglobin (earliest), CK-MB (re-infarct), Troponin (best + longest).
Cardiac troponin after MI typically:
- ARises within minutes and falls by 6 h
- BRises 3–6 h, peaks ~24 h, stays up 7–10 days
- CNever rises in NSTEMI
- DIs less specific than AST
Which is an appropriate test to assess underlying cardiovascular RISK (not to diagnose the MI)?
- ATroponin
- BFasting lipid profile
- CMyoglobin
- DCK-MB
- Troponin: rises 3–6 h, peaks ~24 h, lasts 7–10 d.
- Myoglobin earliest but non-specific.
- Risk tests: lipids, glucose/HbA1c, hs-CRP.
a) Describe the biochemical findings in a patient with metabolic syndrome (5.5). b) Describe the expected biochemical findings in post-hepatic jaundice, including serum and urine findings (7).
a) Metabolic syndrome — biochemical findings: raised fasting glucose (impaired fasting glucose or frank diabetes); dyslipidaemia (raised triglycerides, low HDL cholesterol); raised fasting insulin (insulin resistance). These accompany the clinical criteria of central obesity and hypertension.
b) Post-hepatic (obstructive) jaundice: markedly raised conjugated (direct) bilirubin; markedly raised ALP and GGT; mildly raised ALT/AST; urine — dark, bilirubin present, urobilinogen absent/reduced; stool — pale (reduced stercobilinogen); prolonged prothrombin time that corrects with vitamin K.
- Metabolic syndrome biochemistry: raised fasting glucose, high triglycerides, low HDL, high fasting insulin (insulin resistance).
- Post-hepatic jaundice: ↑conjugated bilirubin, ↑↑ALP and GGT, pale stool, dark urine, urobilinogen reduced/absent.
- In obstruction, conjugated bilirubin refluxes into blood and urine while none reaches the gut → pale stool, no urobilinogen.
- Prothrombin time is prolonged (fat-soluble vitamin K malabsorption) but corrects with parenteral vitamin K.
- Metabolic syndrome: ↑glucose, dyslipidaemia (↑TG, ↓HDL), ↑insulin
- Post-hepatic jaundice serum: ↑conjugated bilirubin, ↑ALP/GGT, mild ↑ALT/AST
- Urine dark/bilirubin present, urobilinogen reduced; stool pale; PT corrects with vitamin K
Obstructive jaundice urine/stool → "Dark up, Pale down": dark urine (bilirubin), pale stool (no stercobilin).
In complete post-hepatic (obstructive) jaundice, urinary urobilinogen is:
- AMarkedly raised
- BAbsent or reduced
- CUnchanged
- DReplaced by haemoglobin
A biochemical feature of metabolic syndrome is:
- ALow triglycerides
- BHigh HDL cholesterol
- CRaised fasting glucose with low HDL
- DLow fasting insulin
- Metabolic syndrome: ↑glucose, ↑TG, ↓HDL, ↑insulin.
- Obstructive jaundice: pale stool, dark urine, no urobilinogen.
- Obstructive PT corrects with vitamin K.
A. A 45-year-old male, previously well, had a pancreatectomy 10 days ago after an RTA. He is passing large volumes of urine, with thirst, drowsiness, vomiting; BP 95/60, pulse 120, cold extremities, deep sighing rapid breathing. Na⁺ 150 (135–145); K⁺ 5.9 (3.5–5.5); Cl⁻ 105 (95–108); creatinine 160 (60–120); urea 18 (2.1–8.5); C-peptide 0.01 (0.26–0.62); RBS 32 (3.2–7.8); pH 7.05 (7.35–7.45); pCO₂ 15 (35–45); HCO₃⁻ 5 (22–26).
(i) comment on sodium, creatinine and urea, and the likely cause (4). (ii) acid–base imbalance and likely cause (2). (iii) calculate the anion gap and comment (2). (iv) what would urine examination reveal (2). (v) comment on the potassium level and its cause (2.5).
B. A 48-year-old man with chest pain. NT-proBNP (0–300 pg/mL): admission 310, day 1 658. Hs Troponin I (0–100 ng/L): admission 435, day 1 1728, day 3 7266, day 4 5092. CK-MB (0–25 U/L) 53. T-chol 4.2 (2.9–5.2); LDL 2.2 (0.9–3.4); HDL 0.79 (0.9–1.9); triglycerides 7.33 (0.45–1.8).
(i) likely diagnosis with reasons (3). (ii) explain the NT-proBNP results (2.5). (iii) why were serial hs-Troponin I estimations done (2). (iv) modifiable risk factors in this patient (3). (v) biochemical tests to assess for complications (2).
Context: total pancreatectomy → loss of islet β-cells → no insulin (C-peptide undetectable at 0.01) → new insulin-dependent diabetes presenting as diabetic ketoacidosis (hyperglycaemia, Kussmaul breathing, dehydration, hypotension).
A(i) Sodium, creatinine, urea: Na⁺ raised (150) — hypernatraemia from osmotic (glucose) diuresis and dehydration. Urea (18) and creatinine (160) both raised, with urea disproportionately high → pre-renal acute kidney injury from hypovolaemia (osmotic diuresis, vomiting, hypotension, poor perfusion); the raised urea:creatinine ratio supports a pre-renal/dehydration cause.
A(ii) Acid–base: high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis (pH 7.05, HCO₃⁻ 5) with respiratory compensation (pCO₂ 15 from Kussmaul breathing). Cause: ketoacidosis from insulin deficiency (accumulation of ketone bodies).
A(iii) Anion gap = (Na⁺ + K⁺) − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻) = (150 + 5.9) − (105 + 5) = 45.9 mmol/L (≈40 if K omitted). Markedly raised (normal ~8–16) → confirms high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis from unmeasured anions (ketones).
A(iv) Urine: glycosuria (RBS exceeds the renal threshold); ketonuria; high specific gravity (dehydration) ± casts if AKI.
A(v) Potassium: raised (5.9, hyperkalaemia) — acidosis drives H⁺ into cells in exchange for K⁺ moving out; insulin deficiency prevents cellular K⁺ uptake; AKI reduces renal excretion. Note: total-body potassium is actually depleted (osmotic-diuresis losses) and will fall sharply once insulin and fluids are started — monitor closely.
B(i) Diagnosis: acute myocardial infarction. Reasons — markedly raised hs-Troponin I with a rise-and-fall pattern (peak ~day 3), raised CK-MB (>2×), in a patient with chest pain. The characteristic troponin kinetics are diagnostic of acute MI.
B(ii) NT-proBNP: released by ventricular myocardium in response to wall stretch/volume overload. Its rise from 310 to 658 (above reference) indicates developing left-ventricular dysfunction / early heart failure as a complication of the infarct (ventricular remodelling).
B(iii) Serial hs-Troponin: to demonstrate the rise-and-fall (delta) that distinguishes acute MI from chronic troponin elevation (e.g. CKD, chronic heart failure), to help when the first sample is early/borderline, and to gauge infarct size or detect re-infarction.
B(iv) Modifiable risk factors here: atherogenic dyslipidaemia — very high triglycerides (7.33) and low HDL (0.79). (Others modifiable in general: smoking, hypertension, diabetes, obesity, inactivity, diet.)
B(v) Tests for complications: NT-proBNP/BNP (heart failure); renal function (cardiorenal); serial troponin (re-infarction); electrolytes K⁺/Mg²⁺ (arrhythmia risk); glucose/HbA1c and lipid profile (risk factors). LFTs for statin monitoring.
- Total pancreatectomy → no β-cells → C-peptide ≈ 0 → insulin-dependent DKA.
- High-anion-gap metabolic acidosis (pH 7.05, HCO₃⁻ 5) with Kussmaul respiratory compensation (pCO₂ 15).
- Osmotic (glucose) diuresis → dehydration, hypernatraemia and pre-renal AKI (urea disproportionately high).
- Acidosis + insulin lack shift K⁺ out of cells → serum K⁺ high, but total-body K⁺ is depleted.
- Anion gap = (Na⁺+K⁺) − (Cl⁻+HCO₃⁻) = (150+5.9) − (105+5) ≈ 46 — grossly raised from ketones.
- Warn: potassium falls sharply once insulin and fluids begin — replace early.
- Hypernatraemia + azotaemia (pre-renal AKI) with osmotic-diuresis reasoning
- HAGMA from ketoacidosis with Kussmaul compensation
- Correct anion-gap calculation, labelled markedly raised
- Urine: glycosuria, ketonuria, high SG
- Explains hyperkalaemia now vs total-body K⁺ depletion
DKA triad → "KHK": Ketoacidosis, Hyperglycaemia, Kussmaul breathing. Watch the potassium.
A total pancreatectomy patient develops DKA. His C-peptide is ~0.01. This indicates:
- AExogenous insulin overdose
- BAbsent endogenous insulin (β-cell loss)
- CInsulinoma
- DNormal β-cell function
In DKA the serum potassium is often HIGH, yet total-body potassium is:
- AAlso high
- BNormal
- CDepleted
- DUnmeasurable
- C-peptide ≈ 0 = no endogenous insulin.
- DKA = HAGMA + Kussmaul (low pCO₂).
- Serum K⁺ high but body K⁺ depleted — replace early.
(a) (i) describe the assessment of Bence Jones proteins in a sample (2.5). (ii) outline the characteristics of plasma proteins (4). (iii) with a well-labelled diagram, demonstrate the plasma protein components in electrophoresis (6).
(b) Serum biochemistry for two jaundiced 2-week-old babies. Baby A: total bilirubin 142.7, direct 7.7, ALT 23.0, AST 27.0, ALP 124, GGT 50, albumin 42. Baby B: total bilirubin 385, direct 318 (ref: total bili 3.4–17, direct 0–7.9 µmol/L; ALT 10–35; AST 5–34; ALP 53–128; GGT 12–64 U/L; albumin 28–44 g/L).
(i) at what serum bilirubin is jaundice clinically visible? (1.5). (ii) two possible causes of the jaundice (4). (iii) giving reasons, whether ALT, AST, ALP and GGT are likely deranged (4). (iv) giving reasons, the expected urine dipstick findings (3).
(a)(i) Bence Jones protein (free monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains, seen in multiple myeloma):
- Classic heat test (historical): urine heated to ~40–60°C precipitates the protein, which redissolves on boiling (~100°C) and reappears on cooling — unreliable.
- Definitive: urine protein electrophoresis with immunofixation on a concentrated urine sample identifies the monoclonal light chain (κ or λ); serum free light-chain assay is complementary.
- Note: the standard urine dipstick does not detect Bence Jones protein (it detects albumin, not light chains).
(ii) Characteristics of plasma proteins: synthesised mainly by the liver (except immunoglobulins — plasma cells); amphoteric, carrying a net negative charge at physiological pH (so they migrate in an electric field); diverse functions — oncotic pressure and transport (albumin), transport (transferrin), immunity (immunoglobulins), clotting (fibrinogen), plus enzymes and hormones; vary in size/molecular weight; total plasma protein ~60–80 g/L with albumin the most abundant.
(iii) Serum protein electrophoresis (alkaline pH ~8.6) separates five bands from anode (+) to cathode (−): albumin (largest peak), α₁-globulins (α₁-antitrypsin), α₂-globulins (haptoglobin, α₂-macroglobulin, ceruloplasmin), β-globulins (transferrin, C3, β-lipoprotein) and γ-globulins (immunoglobulins IgG/IgA/IgM).
(b) Neonatal jaundice. Baby A shows unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (total 142.7, direct only 7.7 → indirect ≈135). Baby B shows conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (total 385, direct 318).
(i) Clinical detection: jaundice becomes visible once serum bilirubin exceeds ~34–50 µmol/L (>2–3 mg/dL); in neonates skin jaundice is usually apparent above ~85 µmol/L (~5 mg/dL).
(ii) Two possible causes: (1) haemolytic disease of the newborn (ABO/Rh incompatibility, G6PD) → unconjugated pattern (Baby A) — also physiological or breast-milk jaundice; (2) biliary atresia / obstructive (or neonatal hepatitis, choledochal cyst, sepsis, galactosaemia) → conjugated pattern (Baby B).
(iii) ALT/AST/ALP/GGT (values given for Baby A): all sit within or near their reference ranges (ALT 23, AST 27, ALP 124 [ref ≤128; ALP is physiologically higher in infants due to bone growth], GGT 50) — so they are not deranged. This fits a pre-hepatic/unconjugated (haemolytic) cause, which does not injure hepatocytes (would raise ALT/AST) or bile ducts (would raise ALP/GGT). In a conjugated/obstructive picture like Baby B, one would instead expect raised GGT and ALP.
(iv) Urine dipstick: Baby A (unconjugated/haemolytic) — bilirubin negative (unconjugated bilirubin is albumin-bound, insoluble and not filtered) with raised urobilinogen (more bilirubin is conjugated, excreted and reabsorbed). Baby B (conjugated/obstructive) — bilirubin positive (conjugated bilirubin is water-soluble and filtered → dark urine) with reduced/absent urobilinogen if the obstruction is complete.
- Bence Jones protein = free monoclonal light chains (myeloma); detect by urine electrophoresis + immunofixation, NOT dipstick.
- SPEP separates five bands anode→cathode: albumin, α₁, α₂, β, γ.
- The classic heat test (precipitates 40–60°C, redissolves ~100°C) is historical and unreliable; serum free light-chain assay is complementary.
- Plasma proteins are amphoteric, net-negative at pH 8.6, so they migrate toward the anode; albumin is fastest.
- Neonatal jaundice: unconjugated bilirubin is neurotoxic (kernicterus); conjugated (as in Baby B) always signals pathology.
- Bence Jones detection: urine electrophoresis + immunofixation (dipstick negative)
- Characteristics of plasma proteins (liver-made, amphoteric, diverse functions)
- SPEP five bands correctly ordered and labelled
- Neonatal jaundice: clinical threshold and conjugated = pathological
SPEP order (anode→cathode) → "A-A-A-B-G": Albumin, α₁, α₂, Beta, Gamma.
Bence Jones protein is best confirmed by:
- AUrine dipstick
- BUrine electrophoresis with immunofixation
- CSerum sodium
- DFull blood count
On serum protein electrophoresis, which band migrates FASTEST toward the anode?
- AGamma
- BBeta
- CAlpha-2
- DAlbumin
Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia in a 2-week-old neonate (Baby B) is:
- AAlways physiological
- BNever significant
- CAlways pathological and needs investigation
- DDue to breast milk
- Bence Jones = free light chains; dipstick misses it.
- SPEP: albumin, α₁, α₂, β, γ (anode→cathode).
- Neonatal conjugated jaundice is always pathological.
a) A 30-year-old man was found to have a fasting glucose of 1.8 mmol/L. i) Describe three possible causes of this finding (6). ii) Giving reasons, describe three biochemical tests that will be useful for management of this patient (6.5).
i) Causes of hypoglycaemia (any three): insulinoma (autonomous insulin secretion by a pancreatic beta-cell tumour); exogenous insulin or sulfonylurea (therapeutic, factitious or overdose); adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease, cortisol deficiency) or hypopituitarism; severe liver disease (impaired gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis); alcohol (inhibits gluconeogenesis); sepsis; non-islet-cell tumours secreting IGF-2.
ii) Biochemical tests + reasons:
- Plasma insulin and C-peptide taken during hypoglycaemia: high insulin with high C-peptide indicates endogenous excess (insulinoma or sulfonylurea); high insulin with low C-peptide indicates exogenous insulin
- Sulfonylurea screen: distinguishes drug-induced hyperinsulinism from an insulinoma
- Serum cortisol (with a short Synacthen test): excludes adrenal insufficiency as a cause
(Also useful: proinsulin, beta-hydroxybutyrate - suppressed in insulin excess - and a laboratory glucose to confirm true hypoglycaemia, i.e. Whipple triad.)
- Insulin + C-peptide together classify hypoglycaemia: high both = endogenous (insulinoma/sulfonylurea); high insulin + low C-peptide = exogenous insulin.
- A sulfonylurea screen separates insulinoma from drug-induced hyperinsulinism.
- C-peptide is co-secreted with the body's own insulin, so it is LOW when insulin is injected.
- Non-insulin causes (alcohol, liver disease, adrenal insufficiency, IGF-2 tumours) show low insulin and low C-peptide.
- Confirm true hypoglycaemia with Whipple's triad and a laboratory (not just meter) glucose.
- Three causes of hypoglycaemia (insulinoma, drugs, adrenal/liver/alcohol, IGF-2 tumour)
- Insulin + C-peptide during hypoglycaemia to localise endogenous vs exogenous
- Sulfonylurea screen and cortisol/Synacthen with reasons
C-peptide rule → "C for Co-secreted": high with the body's own insulin, low when insulin is injected.
Hypoglycaemia with HIGH insulin and LOW C-peptide indicates:
- AInsulinoma
- BSulfonylurea use
- CExogenous (injected) insulin
- DAdrenal insufficiency
Which test best separates an insulinoma from sulfonylurea-induced hyperinsulinism?
- ASerum cortisol
- BSulfonylurea (drug) screen
- CHbA1c
- DLipid profile
- High insulin + high C-peptide = endogenous (insulinoma/sulfonylurea).
- High insulin + low C-peptide = exogenous insulin.
- Confirm with Whipple's triad + lab glucose.
b) A 59-year-old man was found to have a malignant tumour in the abdomen. Giving reasons, describe three tumour markers that will be useful in his evaluation (12.5).
The choice depends on the likely primary site. Three useful markers, with reasons:
- CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen): raised in colorectal carcinoma (also gastric and pancreatic); supports diagnosis, aids staging, and monitors for recurrence after resection
- AFP (alpha-fetoprotein): raised in hepatocellular carcinoma and germ-cell (yolk-sac) tumours; helps identify a hepatic primary and monitor treatment response
- CA 19-9: raised in pancreatic and biliary (cholangiocarcinoma) tumours; supports diagnosis and monitors response and recurrence
(Also acceptable with reasons: CA-125 for ovarian, PSA if prostate, beta-hCG for germ-cell tumours.) Markers support diagnosis and monitor disease; they are not diagnostic on their own because they lack specificity.
- CEA → colorectal (also gastric/pancreatic); AFP → hepatocellular and germ-cell (yolk-sac); CA 19-9 → pancreatic/biliary.
- Tumour markers support diagnosis and monitor disease — they are NOT diagnostic alone (poor specificity).
- Choose markers by likely primary site and always give the reason (diagnosis, staging, monitoring recurrence).
- Three markers with the correct primary-site reasoning (CEA, AFP, CA 19-9)
- States markers monitor and support but are not diagnostic on their own
Marker → organ: CEA=Colon, AFP=liver (And Fetal Parts/germ-cell), CA 19-9=pancreas/biliary.
The tumour marker most associated with pancreatic and biliary carcinoma is:
- ACEA
- BAFP
- CCA 19-9
- DPSA
Which statement about tumour markers is correct?
- AThey are diagnostic on their own
- BThey are specific to one cancer each
- CThey support diagnosis and monitor disease but lack specificity
- DThey replace histology
- CEA = colorectal; AFP = HCC/germ-cell; CA 19-9 = pancreatic/biliary.
- Markers monitor and support, never diagnose alone.
- Pick markers by likely primary site.
The following biochemical results were obtained from an 82-year-old female presenting with jaundice: total bilirubin 270.7 µmol/L (3.4 to 20.5); direct bilirubin 206.5 µmol/L (0 to 8.6); ALT 18 u/L (0 to 34); AST 32 u/L (0 to 34); alkaline phosphatase 412 u/L (53 to 141); GGT 227 u/L (12 to 64). i) What type of jaundice does the patient have (2.5)? ii) Give two differential diagnoses (4). iii) Give two tumour markers which may be useful in this case, with reasons (4). iv) What are the expected urine biochemical findings in this patient (2)?
i) Type: obstructive (post-hepatic / cholestatic) jaundice - a predominantly conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinaemia with markedly raised ALP and GGT but near-normal transaminases (a cholestatic, not hepatocellular, pattern).
ii) Differentials: carcinoma of the head of the pancreas; cholangiocarcinoma; choledocholithiasis (a stone in the common bile duct); periampullary carcinoma.
iii) Tumour markers + reasons: CA 19-9 (raised in pancreatic and biliary carcinoma, supporting a malignant obstructive cause); CEA (raised in pancreaticobiliary and metastatic GI adenocarcinoma, complements CA 19-9).
iv) Urine findings: dark urine with raised conjugated bilirubin (bilirubinuria, positive on dipstick); urobilinogen absent or reduced (obstruction blocks bile flow to the gut). Stools are clinically pale.
- Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia + ↑↑ALP/GGT with near-normal transaminases = obstructive (cholestatic) jaundice.
- Differentials in an elderly patient: pancreatic head carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma, choledocholithiasis, periampullary tumour.
- Obstruction blocks bile flow to the gut → no urobilinogen in urine; conjugated bilirubin spills into urine (dark).
- Tumour markers: CA 19-9 (pancreaticobiliary) and CEA (complements it).
- Obstructive (post-hepatic) jaundice with cholestatic pattern reasoning
- Two differentials (pancreatic head ca, cholangiocarcinoma, CBD stone, periampullary ca)
- Two tumour markers with reasons (CA 19-9, CEA)
- Urine: bilirubinuria present, urobilinogen absent/reduced
Cholestatic enzymes → "ALP + GGT together" = biliary; GGT confirms the ALP is hepatic, not bone.
A cholestatic (obstructive) LFT pattern shows:
- A↑↑ALT/AST, normal ALP
- B↑↑ALP and GGT with near-normal transaminases
- CIsolated unconjugated bilirubin
- DLow ALP
The tumour marker best suited to a suspected malignant biliary obstruction is:
- AAFP
- BPSA
- CCA 19-9
- Dβ-hCG
- Obstructive jaundice: ↑conjugated bilirubin, ↑↑ALP/GGT.
- Urobilinogen absent in complete obstruction.
- CA 19-9 + CEA for pancreaticobiliary cancer.
b) A patient was found to have a plasma sodium of 152 mmol/L. a) Discuss the possible causes of this finding (5). b) Discuss the main clinical features associated with such findings (7.5).
a) Causes of hypernatraemia (a water deficit relative to sodium):
- Pure water loss or reduced intake: impaired thirst or no access to water (elderly, unconscious), fever and high insensible loss
- Renal water loss: diabetes insipidus (cranial or nephrogenic), osmotic diuresis (hyperglycaemia, mannitol)
- GI water loss: osmotic diarrhoea, vomiting
- Sodium excess: hypertonic saline or sodium bicarbonate infusion, primary hyperaldosteronism / Cushing syndrome, salt poisoning
b) Clinical features (mainly neurological, from cellular dehydration and brain shrinkage): thirst; lethargy, weakness, irritability and restlessness; confusion progressing to drowsiness, seizures and coma; muscle twitching and hyperreflexia; features of the cause (polyuria and polydipsia in diabetes insipidus); signs of volume depletion (dry mucous membranes, reduced skin turgor, tachycardia, hypotension); in severe or rapid cases, intracranial (subdural) haemorrhage from tearing of bridging veins.
- Hypernatraemia = water deficit relative to sodium; causes are water loss/poor intake, renal loss (diabetes insipidus, osmotic diuresis), GI loss, or Na excess.
- Features are mainly neurological, from cellular dehydration and brain shrinkage.
- Rapid brain shrinkage can tear bridging veins → subdural haemorrhage; correct sodium slowly.
- Diabetes insipidus causes renal free-water loss (cranial or nephrogenic).
- Impaired thirst/no water access in the elderly or unconscious is a classic exam cause.
- Causes across the four groups (pure water loss, renal loss, GI loss, sodium excess)
- Neurological features (thirst, confusion, seizures, coma; twitching/hyperreflexia)
- Signs of the cause and of volume depletion; risk of intracranial haemorrhage
Hypernatraemia = "too little water": think water IN (thirst/access) vs water OUT (renal, GI) vs Na⁺ IN (iatrogenic).
The dominant clinical features of hypernatraemia arise from:
- ACellular overhydration
- BCellular dehydration and brain shrinkage
- CHypocalcaemia
- DHyperkalaemia
A cause of hypernatraemia from renal free-water loss is:
- ASIADH
- BDiabetes insipidus
- CVomiting only
- DHypertonic saline
- Hypernatraemia = water deficit vs sodium.
- Features are neurological (dehydrated, shrinking brain).
- Correct slowly to avoid cerebral injury.
Immunology
20 SAQsA young man presented with epigastric pain for over five years. A biopsy of the stomach revealed H. pylori.
a) Discuss the immunopathogenesis of the condition (17).
b) List other laboratory tests that one would have requested to arrive at a diagnosis (8).
a) Immunopathogenesis: H. pylori colonises the gastric mucus layer — urease neutralises gastric acid, flagella provide motility and adhesins anchor it to the epithelium. Virulence factors CagA and VacA injure epithelial cells and trigger both innate (neutrophils, macrophages) and adaptive (Th1/Th17) immune responses. Released cytokines (IL-8 recruits neutrophils; TNF, IL-1) drive a chronic active gastritis and disturb acid regulation, producing peptic ulceration. Persistent inflammation leads to atrophic gastritis → intestinal metaplasia → dysplasia, raising the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma.
b) Other laboratory tests: rapid urease (CLO) test on biopsy; urea breath test; stool antigen test; serology for anti-H. pylori antibodies; histology with Giemsa or Warthin–Starry stain; and culture.
- Colonisation: urease neutralises acid (also the basis of the CLO and breath tests), flagella give motility, adhesins anchor it to gastric epithelium.
- CagA and VacA injure epithelium and drive an IL-8–neutrophil plus Th1/Th17 chronic active gastritis.
- Diagnostic tests are the standard 8-mark list: rapid urease (CLO), urea breath test, stool antigen, serology, histology (Giemsa/Warthin-Starry), culture.
- Gastric MALT lymphoma frequently regresses after H. pylori eradication — a favourite “treat the infection, cure the tumour” fact. H. pylori is a WHO/IARC class I carcinogen.
- Virulence factors: urease, flagella, adhesins
- CagA/VacA epithelial injury
- Innate + adaptive (Th1/Th17) inflammation; IL-8 → neutrophils
- Chronic gastritis → atrophy → metaplasia → dysplasia
- Sequelae: peptic ulcer, gastric adenocarcinoma, MALT lymphoma
- Diagnostic tests (invasive + non-invasive)
Tests — “CUSSHC”: CLO/urease, Urea breath, Stool antigen, Serology, Histology, Culture. Cancer risk: “GaMBLE” → Gastric adenoca + MALT lymphoma.
Which H. pylori enzyme lets it survive gastric acid and underlies the breath and CLO tests?
- ACatalase
- BProtease
- CUrease
- DCoagulase
Chronic H. pylori gastritis is most strongly linked to which lymphoid malignancy?
- AHodgkin lymphoma
- BGastric MALT lymphoma
- CFollicular lymphoma
- DMantle cell lymphoma
The dominant helper T-cell response driving H. pylori chronic gastritis is:
- ATh2
- BTh1 / Th17
- CTreg
- DTfh only
- Urease → acid neutralisation + basis of CLO/breath tests.
- CagA + VacA = key virulence factors injuring epithelium.
- Sequence: chronic gastritis → atrophy → metaplasia → dysplasia → carcinoma.
- MALT lymphoma can regress on eradication.
A 7-year-old boy received a tetanus toxoid booster (primary series at 6, 10, 14 weeks; booster at 2 years). Serum sampled before and 14 days after the booster and tested for anti-tetanus toxoid IgG by ELISA (pre-booster OD 0.3; post-booster OD 1.5).
- Outline the main differences between the primary and secondary immune response.
- Outline the main immune cells responsible for the secondary immune response and their specific functions.
- Describe the principle and procedure of the ELISA assay.
- Interpret the test results displayed above.
- Explain the difference between tetanus toxoid and tetanus immune globulin.
Primary vs secondary immune response: the primary response is slow (5–10-day lag), of lower magnitude, IgM-predominant (then IgG) and of lower affinity; the secondary response is rapid, of higher magnitude, IgG-predominant, of higher affinity (affinity maturation) and longer-lasting — driven by immunological memory.
Cells of the secondary response: memory B cells (rapidly differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells); memory helper (CD4) T cells (provide co-stimulation and cytokine help); plasma cells (secrete high-affinity IgG).
ELISA principle & procedure: antigen is adsorbed onto the plate; patient serum is added and specific antibody binds; after washing, an enzyme-labelled anti-human antibody is added; a substrate is then added and the resulting colour change (optical density) is proportional to the amount of bound antibody.
Interpretation: the rise from a pre-booster OD of 0.3 to a post-booster OD of 1.5 indicates a brisk secondary (anamnestic) antibody response, i.e. good immunological memory.
Toxoid vs immune globulin: tetanus toxoid is an inactivated toxin used for active immunisation — it stimulates the person's own long-lasting antibody production; tetanus immune globulin supplies preformed antibodies (passive immunisation) giving immediate but short-lived protection.
- Secondary response = faster onset, higher magnitude, IgG-predominant, higher affinity, longer-lasting — all because of memory B and T cells.
- ELISA: antigen coats the plate → patient antibody binds → enzyme-linked anti-human antibody → substrate → colour (optical density) proportional to antibody present.
- Toxoid = active immunisation (your own long-lasting antibody). Immune globulin = passive (preformed antibody, immediate but short-lived). Tetanus-prone wound → give both.
- Primary vs secondary: lag, magnitude, isotype (IgM vs IgG), affinity, duration
- Cells: memory B, memory CD4 T, plasma cells
- ELISA principle and stepwise procedure
- Interpret OD rise as a secondary response
- Toxoid (active) vs immune globulin (passive)
Secondary response is “FHIAL”: Faster, Higher, IgG, higher Affinity, Longer. Active vs passive: Toxoid = Train your own; Immune globulin = Instant but gone soon.
Compared with the primary response, the secondary antibody response is characterised by:
- ASlower onset and IgM predominance
- BLower affinity antibody
- CFaster onset, higher titre, IgG predominance and higher affinity
- DNo requirement for memory cells
In an ELISA, the intensity of the final colour is proportional to:
- AThe number of cells passing the laser
- BThe amount of bound antibody (or antigen)
- CThe DNA copy number
- DThe size of DNA fragments
Tetanus immune globulin differs from tetanus toxoid in that it provides:
- AImmediate, short-lived passive immunity (preformed antibody)
- BLong-lasting active immunity
- CLifelong memory
- DT-cell priming
- Primary: slow, IgM first, low affinity. Secondary: fast, IgG, high affinity.
- ELISA colour ∝ bound antibody/antigen.
- Toxoid = active; immune globulin = passive.
- OD 0.3 → 1.5 = brisk anamnestic response = good memory.
A 10-year-old boy with 3-day facial puffiness and dark, reduced urine; sore throat with fever two weeks prior. Febrile (38.7°C), hypertensive (160/100). Periorbital and pedal oedema. Urine: proteinuria, haematuria, red-cell casts. Anaemic (10.2 g/dL), normal WCC. Elevated BUN and creatinine.
a) MOST LIKELY diagnosis (1). b) Immunopathogenesis in detail (15). c) Role of serological testing, with specific tests and utility (7). d) Gold-standard confirmatory test (2).
a) Nephritic syndrome (post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).
b) Immunopathogenesis: antigen exposure (streptococcal sore throat 2 weeks prior) → immune-complex formation → complement activation and leukocyte recruitment → cytokine-mediated inflammation in the kidney → GBM damage with leakage of blood components (haematuria, proteinuria, RBC casts). Mesangial and endothelial cell proliferation blocks renal capillaries → ↓GFR → oliguria, water retention, hypervolaemia → oedema and hypertension.
c) Serological tests: autoimmune markers (ANA, anti-GBM); complement levels (C3, C4); hepatitis B/C serology (if viral-associated); immunoglobulin levels (esp. IgA); ASO titres (recent streptococcal infection); ANCA (rule out systemic vasculitis).
d) Gold standard: renal biopsy.
- Post-streptococcal GN = nephritic syndrome: haematuria + RBC casts + hypertension + oliguria + mild proteinuria, ~1–3 weeks after strep throat/skin infection.
- Type III hypersensitivity: circulating strep Ag–Ab complexes deposit in the GBM → complement activation → neutrophil influx → proliferative GN.
- IF shows granular “lumpy-bumpy” IgG + C3; EM shows subepithelial “humps”. Serum C3 is low (consumed); ASO/anti-DNase B raised.
- Renal biopsy is the gold-standard confirmatory test, but PSGN in a child is usually diagnosed clinically and managed supportively — most recover.
- Diagnosis: nephritic syndrome / PSGN
- Immune-complex (Type III) pathogenesis with complement
- GBM damage → haematuria, proteinuria, RBC casts
- Reduced GFR → oliguria, oedema, hypertension
- Serology: ASO, C3/C4, ANA/anti-GBM, ANCA
- Gold standard: renal biopsy
NephriTic → T for Type III + Three weeks post-strep. Findings: “HARP” — Haematuria, Azotaemia, RBC casts + hypertension, Proteinuria (mild).
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
- AType I
- BType II
- CType III (immune-complex)
- DType IV
A urine finding that specifically points to glomerular (nephritic) injury is:
- ABroad waxy casts
- BRed-cell casts
- COval fat bodies
- DHyaline casts
Which serum change is expected in acute PSGN?
- ARaised C3
- BLow C3 with raised ASO titre
- CLow ASO
- DNormal complement
- PSGN = Type III, granular IgG/C3, subepithelial humps.
- Low C3, raised ASO/anti-DNase B.
- Nephritic: haematuria, RBC casts, hypertension, oliguria.
- Gold standard confirmation = renal biopsy.
Discuss the sequence of events during phagocytosis leading to killing of microbes.
- Chemotaxis — phagocyte moves to the infection site following cytokines
- Adhesion — phagocyte adheres to the pathogen (via antibodies or C3b)
- Pseudopodium formation
- Phagosome formation — pathogen engulfed within a vacuole
- Phagolysosome formation — lysosomes fuse with the phagosome and release enzymes
- Lysis of pathogen — enzymes degrade the pathogen
- Exocytosis — residual matter released
- Order: chemotaxis → adhesion (opsonins) → engulfment → phagolysosome → killing. First step is chemotaxis, not engulfment.
- O₂-dependent killing = NADPH oxidase respiratory burst → superoxide/ROS; myeloperoxidase makes HOCl. O₂-independent = lysozyme, lactoferrin, defensins.
- Opsonins IgG (Fc) and C3b bridge microbe to phagocyte. Defective NADPH oxidase → chronic granulomatous disease (recurrent catalase-positive infections).
- Chemotaxis (C5a, LTB4, IL-8)
- Adhesion via opsonins (IgG, C3b)
- Engulfment / pseudopodia → phagosome
- Phagolysosome fusion
- O₂-dependent (respiratory burst) and O₂-independent killing
“CA-EPK”: Chemotaxis, Adhesion, Engulfment, Phagolysosome, Killing. Killing = ROS (oxygen-dependent) + enzymes (oxygen-independent).
The first step in phagocytosis is:
- AEngulfment
- BChemotaxis toward the stimulus
- CPhagolysosome formation
- DRespiratory burst
The principal opsonins that tag microbes for phagocytosis are:
- AIgE and histamine
- BIgM and C1q
- CIgG (Fc) and C3b
- DPerforin and granzyme
Oxygen-dependent intracellular killing depends chiefly on:
- ANADPH oxidase generating a respiratory burst
- BLactoferrin
- CLysozyme
- DDefensins
- First step = chemotaxis.
- Opsonins = IgG + C3b.
- O₂-dependent killing = NADPH oxidase respiratory burst → ROS.
- NADPH oxidase defect = chronic granulomatous disease.
Outline PCR under: a) definition, b) principle, c) clinical utility in diagnostic pathology, d) advantages/disadvantages versus ELISA.
a) A process that amplifies a DNA sequence.
b) Principle: a DNA segment is denatured; annealing (primer bases hydrogen-bond to template); extension (DNA polymerase synthesises complementary strands); the cycle repeats to make multiple copies.
c) Utility: identify specific DNA segments/genes; diagnose HIV (esp. low loads, e.g. neonates); detect pathogens by DNA; identify tumour gene abnormalities.
d) vs ELISA: more specific and accurate but more expensive and slower; more readily modified for greater specificity.
- One cycle = denaturation (~95°C) → annealing (~50–65°C, primers bind) → extension (72°C, Taq polymerase). Repeated cycles amplify exponentially.
- vs ELISA: PCR is more specific/sensitive but costlier and slower; ELISA detects antigen/antibody by colour. PCR detects nucleic acid.
- Clinical wins: HIV in neonates (maternal antibody makes serology useless — need viral DNA/RNA), viral load, BCR-ABL, mutation detection.
- Definition: enzymatic DNA amplification
- Steps: denaturation, annealing, extension (temperatures)
- Reagents: template, primers, dNTPs, Taq, Mg²⁺
- Utility: infection ID, viral load, mutations
- Advantages/disadvantages vs ELISA
“DAE” — Denature, Anneal, Extend. Temperatures climb then drop: 95 → 55 → 72.
PCR is a technique that:
- ASeparates proteins by charge
- BAmplifies a specific DNA sequence
- CMeasures antibody by colour change
- DCounts cells by light scatter
During the annealing step of PCR:
- ADouble-stranded DNA separates
- BTaq synthesises new strands
- CPrimers hydrogen-bond to the template
- DProducts are visualised
Why is PCR preferred over serology to diagnose HIV in a neonate?
- AIt is cheaper
- BMaternal antibody crosses the placenta, so antibody tests are unreliable — PCR detects viral nucleic acid directly
- CIt needs no equipment
- DIt measures CD4 count
- Steps: denature 95°C → anneal ~55°C → extend 72°C.
- Amplifies DNA exponentially (~2ⁿ).
- Neonatal HIV: use PCR, not serology.
- More specific than ELISA but costlier/slower.
A 10-year-old with weight loss, mild fever, enlarged left cervical node; no cough, normal chest X-ray. Biopsy: granulomatous infiltrate, no acid-fast bacilli. Tuberculin skin test 20 mm induration at 48 h.
a) Most probable diagnosis and agent (3). b) Benefits of granulomatous inflammation as protection (3). c) Cell types and cytokines in the granuloma, with sources (7). d) Histopathology of the skin-test site; type of hypersensitivity (4). e) Which lymphocyte and how it recognises antigen (4). f) Significance of the brother's positive tuberculin with normal CXR (4).
a) Tuberculous (mycobacterial) lymphadenitis, i.e. active extrapulmonary TB (a biopsy-proven granulomatous node is not latent infection), caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b) Granulomas contain the infection (barrier limiting spread); recruit immune cells (macrophages, T cells); produce cytokines that activate a more effective response.
c) Cells: CD4⁺ T cells; multinucleated giant cells. Cytokines: IFN-γ, TNF-α, IL-12. Sources: macrophages and T cells.
d) Dense infiltrate of lymphocytes and macrophages; delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV).
e) CD4⁺ T cell (Th1 subset); recognises antigen presented by antigen-presenting cells via TCR interaction with the antigen–MHC complex.
f) The brother has been exposed to M. tuberculosis and mounted an immune response, but is well with a normal CXR — latent, not active, disease; his immune response has contained the infection. Significant because he may be at higher future risk and should be monitored.
- A biopsy-proven granulomatous node with a strongly positive tuberculin test is active extrapulmonary TB, not latent infection.
- Granuloma cells: epithelioid histiocytes, Langhans giant cells, CD4 Th1 lymphocytes. Cytokines: IFN-γ (activates macrophages), TNF-α (maintains granuloma), IL-12.
- Tuberculin site histology: dense lymphocyte + macrophage infiltrate. Read at 48–72 h — the timing that defines delayed (Type IV) hypersensitivity.
- A positive tuberculin with a normal CXR in the brother = latent TB (contained), not disease — monitor ± preventive therapy.
- Diagnosis: TB (mycobacterial) lymphadenitis
- Granuloma protective role: contain, recruit, activate
- Cells (CD4 Th1, giant cells) + cytokines (IFN-γ, TNF-α, IL-12) + sources
- Skin-test histology; Type IV hypersensitivity
- CD4 Th1 recognises antigen–MHC via TCR
- Latent vs active (positive test, normal CXR)
Tuberculin = Type IV (delayed, T-cell). Granuloma cells: “ELL” — Epithelioid histiocytes, Langhans giant cells, Lymphocyte (Th1) rim. Key cytokine = IFN-γ.
The tuberculin (Mantoux) reaction is an example of:
- AType I
- BType II
- CType III
- DType IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
The cytokine most responsible for activating macrophages within a tuberculous granuloma is:
- AIL-4
- BIFN-γ
- CIL-5
- DIL-10
A well-appearing contact with a positive tuberculin test but a normal chest X-ray most likely has:
- AActive pulmonary TB
- BMiliary TB
- CLatent TB infection
- DA false-positive test only
- Tuberculin = Type IV DTH, read 48–72 h.
- Granuloma = epithelioid + Langhans + Th1 lymphocytes.
- Driver cytokine = IFN-γ (macrophage activation).
- Positive test + normal CXR = latent TB.
Provide two applications of the Southern blotting technique.
- Used with PCR to confirm the presence of a gene
- Estimate gene complexity before sequencing
- Test for the presence of a specific allele
- Detect RFLP and VNTR polymorphisms for DNA fingerprinting
- Southern = DNA transferred to membrane and probed with a labelled complementary sequence. It detects specific DNA sequences and gene rearrangements.
- Blot family: Southern = DNA, Northern = RNA, Western = protein. Applications = specific-allele detection, RFLP/VNTR fingerprinting, gene complexity.
- Detects specific DNA sequences
- Confirms PCR products / gene presence
- Allele detection
- RFLP / VNTR fingerprinting
“SNoW DRoP”: Southern = DNA, Northern = RNA (both run to the West... i.e. left as read), DNA / RNA / Protein.
Southern blotting is used to detect:
- ASpecific DNA sequences
- BRNA
- CProteins
- DCarbohydrates
Southern blotting is applied in DNA fingerprinting through detection of:
- ACodon usage
- BMethylation only
- CRFLP and VNTR polymorphisms
- DRibosomal RNA
- Southern = DNA, Northern = RNA, Western = protein.
- Detects specific sequences, alleles, RFLP/VNTR.
Explain the process of phagocytosis, from encountering the antigen to killing it.
- Chemotaxis — attraction of phagocytes to the infection site by cytokines
- Adherence — phagocyte adheres to the antigen surface
- Engulfment — ingestion using pseudopodia
- Enclosement — antigen enclosed forming the primary phagosome
- Fusion — phagolysosomal fusion forms the phagolysosome
- Killing — oxygen-independent (lysozymes, hydrolases) and oxygen-dependent (reactive oxygen species, e.g. superoxide)
- From encounter to kill: chemotaxis → adherence → engulfment → phagosome → phagolysosome → killing. Name both killing routes for full marks.
- Oxygen-dependent = reactive oxygen species from the NADPH-oxidase respiratory burst. Oxygen-independent = lysozyme, hydrolases, lactoferrin, defensins.
- Chemotaxis to the site
- Adherence (opsonisation)
- Engulfment / phagosome
- Phagolysosome fusion
- O₂-dependent + O₂-independent killing
Killing two ways: O₂-dependent = ROS (Reactive Oxygen Species); O₂-independent = enzymes (lysozyme, lactoferrin, defensins).
Phagolysosome formation refers to:
- AThe phagocyte adhering to the microbe
- BFusion of lysosomes with the phagosome to release degradative enzymes
- CMovement toward the microbe
- DRelease of residual debris
An example of oxygen-independent killing is:
- ASuperoxide
- BHydrogen peroxide
- CHypochlorous acid
- DLysozyme
- Sequence: chemotaxis → adherence → engulfment → phagolysosome → killing.
- O₂-dependent = ROS; O₂-independent = enzymes.
Describe five biological processes in the HIV-1 replication life cycle that are potential sites for antiretroviral therapy.
- Binding — HIV binds a receptor on the CD4 cell; targeted by CCR5 antagonists and post-attachment inhibitors
- Fusion — HIV envelope fuses with the CD4 membrane; targeted by fusion inhibitors
- Reverse transcription — reverse transcriptase converts HIV RNA to DNA; targeted by NRTIs (e.g. zidovudine)
- Integration — integrase inserts viral DNA into host DNA; targeted by integrase inhibitors (e.g. raltegravir)
- (Fifth step per source: maturation/protease — the standard target is protease, blocked by protease inhibitors.)
- Steps & drugs: binding (CCR5 antagonist/attachment inhibitor) → fusion (fusion inhibitor) → reverse transcription (NRTI/NNRTI) → integration (integrase inhibitor) → maturation (protease inhibitor).
- Reverse transcriptase (RNA→DNA) is unique to retroviruses — the target of zidovudine and the NNRTIs. Integrase inserts proviral DNA (raltegravir).
- HIV infects CD4 T cells; progressive CD4 loss → opportunistic infections. Combination ART hits several steps to prevent resistance.
- Binding (attachment/CCR5)
- Fusion
- Reverse transcription (RT)
- Integration
- Maturation/protease — each with its drug class
Targets — “B-F-R-I-M”: Binding, Fusion, Reverse transcription, Integration, Maturation.
Zidovudine (an NRTI) blocks which step of the HIV life cycle?
- AFusion
- BIntegration
- CReverse transcription
- DMaturation
Raltegravir acts by inhibiting:
- AProtease
- BIntegrase
- CReverse transcriptase
- Dgp41 fusion
CCR5 antagonists (e.g. maraviroc) interfere with which stage?
- AViral binding/entry into the CD4 cell
- BReverse transcription
- CIntegration
- DBudding
- RT = RNA→DNA, blocked by NRTI/NNRTI.
- Integrase inhibitor = raltegravir.
- Protease inhibitor blocks maturation.
- CCR5 antagonist blocks entry.
Describe the principle of flow cytometry.
Principle of flow cytometry: cells in a single-cell suspension are labelled with fluorochrome-conjugated antibodies and made to flow single-file past a laser beam. Scattered light is measured — forward scatter reflects cell size and side scatter reflects internal granularity/complexity — while emitted fluorescence identifies specific surface or intracellular markers. Signals are recorded cell-by-cell, allowing individual cell populations to be quantified and characterised.
- Cells labelled with fluorochrome-conjugated anti-CD antibodies flow single-file past a laser; scattered light and emitted fluorescence are read cell-by-cell.
- Forward scatter ∝ cell size; side scatter ∝ internal granularity/complexity; fluorescence identifies specific surface/intracellular markers.
- Single-cell suspension, fluorochrome anti-CD antibodies
- Single-file past a laser
- Forward scatter = size
- Side scatter = granularity
- Fluorescence = specific markers; per-cell quantification
Forward Scatter = Fat (size); Side Scatter = Stuff inside (granularity).
In flow cytometry, forward scatter is proportional to:
- AGranularity
- BCell size
- CDNA content
- DSurface charge
Flow-cytometric immunophenotyping identifies cells using:
- ACongo red staining
- BFluorochrome-labelled antibodies against CD surface markers
- CReticulin stain
- DOsmotic fragility
- FSC = size, SSC = granularity, fluorescence = CD markers.
- Cells read one at a time past a laser.
Outline the clinical applications of flow cytometry.
Clinical applications of flow cytometry:
- Immunophenotyping and classification of leukaemias and lymphomas (CD-marker profiling).
- CD4 T-cell counting for HIV staging and monitoring.
- Diagnosis of primary immunodeficiencies.
- DNA-content / cell-cycle and ploidy analysis in tumours.
- Reticulocyte enumeration and CD34⁺ stem-cell counting.
- Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria testing (CD55/CD59); HLA-B27 typing.
- Top applications: leukaemia/lymphoma immunophenotyping, CD4 counting in HIV, primary immunodeficiency diagnosis, PNH testing (CD55/CD59), CD34⁺ stem-cell counts.
- In Kenya, CD4 counting for HIV staging/monitoring is the everyday flow-cytometry use to remember.
- Immunophenotyping leukaemia/lymphoma
- CD4 counting (HIV)
- Primary immunodeficiency diagnosis
- DNA/ploidy analysis
- PNH (CD55/CD59); CD34⁺ stem-cell counts
A routine clinical use of flow cytometry in HIV care is:
- AMeasuring viral load
- BCounting CD4 T lymphocytes for staging/monitoring
- CDetecting antibodies
- DSequencing the virus
Flow cytometry is central to the diagnosis of which acquired haemolytic condition?
- AHereditary spherocytosis
- BG6PD deficiency
- CParoxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (CD55/CD59 loss)
- DThalassaemia
- Leukaemia/lymphoma immunophenotyping is the flagship use.
- CD4 count = flow; viral load = PCR.
- PNH: CD55/CD59 loss.
Outline the clinical applications of PCR.
Clinical applications of PCR:
- Diagnosis and viral-load monitoring of infections (HIV, HBV, HCV, TB, SARS-CoV-2).
- Detection of inherited disorders and specific gene mutations.
- Oncology — detection of translocations (e.g. BCR-ABL) and minimal residual disease.
- HLA typing for transplantation.
- Forensic identification and paternity testing.
- Prenatal genetic diagnosis.
- PCR uses: infection diagnosis/viral load (HIV, HBV, HCV, TB, SARS-CoV-2), inherited mutations, oncology translocations (BCR-ABL) + minimal residual disease, HLA typing, forensics.
- “Viral load” and “neonatal HIV” both mean PCR. BCR-ABL monitoring in CML is a favourite oncology PCR example.
- Infection diagnosis & viral-load monitoring
- Inherited mutation detection
- Oncology: translocations, MRD
- HLA typing
- Forensics / paternity; prenatal diagnosis
Monitoring BCR-ABL transcript levels in chronic myeloid leukaemia relies on:
- AELISA
- BQuantitative PCR
- CFlow cytometry
- DSouthern blot alone
“Viral load” in HIV monitoring is measured by:
- APCR (nucleic-acid quantification)
- BCD4 flow cytometry
- CWestern blot
- DRapid antibody test
- PCR: viral load, mutations, BCR-ABL/MRD, HLA typing, forensics.
- Neonatal HIV and viral load = PCR.
Describe the strategies employed by viruses to evade host immune responses.
Viral immune-evasion strategies:
- Antigenic variation — mutation (drift) and reassortment (shift), e.g. influenza and HIV.
- Latency — remaining dormant to hide from the immune system, e.g. herpesviruses.
- Down-regulation of MHC class I to evade cytotoxic T cells.
- Inhibition of the interferon/antiviral response.
- Infection of immune cells themselves (HIV infects CD4 T cells).
- Molecular mimicry; production of decoy or immunosuppressive proteins; inhibition of apoptosis and of complement.
- Core evasion tactics: antigenic variation (drift/shift), latency, MHC-I downregulation, interferon inhibition, infecting immune cells, molecular mimicry, apoptosis/complement inhibition.
- Influenza = antigenic drift (point mutation) vs shift (reassortment → pandemics). Herpesviruses = latency. HIV = high mutation + infects CD4 cells.
- MHC-I downregulation hides cells from cytotoxic T cells — but flags them for NK cells (“missing-self”), so viruses must balance both.
- Antigenic variation (drift vs shift)
- Latency
- MHC-I downregulation
- Interferon/antiviral inhibition
- Infection of immune cells
- Molecular mimicry, apoptosis/complement inhibition
Drift = Drip (small point mutations, seasonal). Shift = Full swap (reassortment → pandemic).
Antigenic shift, responsible for influenza pandemics, results from:
- APoint mutations in surface antigens
- BReassortment of genome segments between strains
- CLatency
- DMHC-I upregulation
A virus that downregulates MHC class I evades cytotoxic T cells but becomes vulnerable to:
- ANeutrophils
- BEosinophils
- CNatural killer cells (missing-self recognition)
- DMast cells
Which viruses classically evade immunity by establishing latency?
- AInfluenza viruses
- BHerpesviruses
- CRotaviruses
- DRhinoviruses
- Drift = point mutation; shift = reassortment (pandemics).
- MHC-I loss dodges CTL but triggers NK cells.
- Herpesviruses = latency; HIV infects CD4 cells.
This page is a fragmented scan; the clearly legible parts are:
• Describe the role of the humoral response in protection against SARS-CoV-2 (4 marks).
• Outline the principles of action of cytokines; outline the roles of cytokines during immune responses (7 marks).
• Infants with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) have severe recurrent infections, initially fungal or viral and only rarely bacterial. Why are bacterial infections less of an issue in these newborns? (3 marks).
Humoral response to SARS-CoV-2: neutralising antibodies (IgG and IgA) directed against the spike protein block binding to the ACE2 receptor and thus viral entry; antibodies also opsonise virus for phagocytosis and activate complement, and provide immunological memory for protection on re-exposure.
Cytokines — principles & roles: they act via specific cell-surface receptors, at very low concentrations, in autocrine, paracrine or endocrine fashion, and show pleiotropy, redundancy and synergy. Roles include mediating inflammation (IL-1, TNF, IL-6), regulating growth and differentiation of immune cells (IL-2), chemotaxis (chemokines) and antiviral defence (interferons).
Why bacterial infections are less of a problem in SCID: for the first ~6 months a newborn is protected by maternal IgG acquired transplacentally, and this opsonising antibody together with intact innate neutrophil function handles most pyogenic bacteria; defence against viruses and fungi depends on T cells, which are absent in SCID — hence viral and fungal infections dominate.
- Anti-spike neutralising IgG/IgA block ACE2 binding; antibodies also opsonise and fix complement, and give memory for re-exposure.
- Cytokine properties: act via specific receptors, at low concentration, autocrine/paracrine/endocrine, with pleiotropy, redundancy and synergy.
- SCID newborns get viral/fungal (T-cell-dependent) infections early; bacteria are handled for ~6 months by transplacental maternal IgG + intact neutrophils.
- Neutralising anti-spike antibody blocks ACE2 entry
- Opsonisation, complement, memory
- Cytokine principles (receptors, low dose, pleiotropy/redundancy/synergy)
- Cytokine roles (inflammation, growth, chemotaxis, antiviral)
- SCID: maternal IgG + neutrophils cover bacteria; T-cell loss → viral/fungal
Cytokines are “PRS”: Pleiotropy, Redundancy, Synergy. SCID: maternal IgG “babysits” against bacteria for ~6 months.
Neutralising antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 mainly target which protein to prevent cell entry?
- ANucleocapsid
- BSpike (blocks ACE2 binding)
- CRNA polymerase
- DMembrane protein
Why are severe bacterial infections initially less prominent than viral/fungal ones in a SCID newborn?
- ABacteria cannot infect neonates
- BSCID spares B cells only
- CTransplacental maternal IgG plus intact neutrophils cover most bacteria for the first months
- DNeonates lack complement
A property shared by most cytokines is:
- APleiotropy, redundancy and synergy at low concentrations
- BAction only at high doses
- CLack of specific receptors
- DExclusively endocrine action
- Neutralising anti-spike Ab blocks ACE2 entry.
- Cytokines: pleiotropy, redundancy, synergy.
- SCID: maternal IgG + neutrophils cover bacteria early; viral/fungal dominate.
6a) Outline the pathologic results of autoimmune attack on a host (4). 6b) Outline the clinical manifestations of atopy in relation to the route of exposure to allergen (15). 6c) Immunologic basis for a positive skin test in allergy evaluation (3). 6d) Mechanism for increased serum IgE in allergic disease (3).
6a) Pathologic results of autoimmune attack: tissue destruction and inflammation (cytotoxic damage); functional stimulation or blockade of receptors (e.g. Graves' disease, myasthenia gravis); immune-complex deposition; and either organ-specific or systemic tissue injury.
6b) Clinical manifestations of atopy by route of exposure: inhaled allergen → allergic rhinitis and asthma; ingested allergen → food allergy, GI upset and urticaria; skin contact → atopic dermatitis/eczema; systemic exposure (drug/venom) → anaphylaxis.
6c) Basis of a positive skin test: allergen cross-links IgE bound to dermal mast cells → degranulation and histamine release → an immediate wheal-and-flare (Type I hypersensitivity).
6d) Mechanism of raised serum IgE: a Th2-skewed response releases IL-4 and IL-13, which drive B-cell class-switching to IgE.
- Atopy by route: inhaled → rhinitis/asthma; ingested → food allergy/urticaria; contact → eczema; systemic → anaphylaxis.
- Positive skin test: allergen cross-links mast-cell-bound IgE → histamine → immediate wheal-and-flare (Type I).
- Raised IgE comes from a Th2 response: IL-4 and IL-13 drive B-cell class-switching to IgE.
- Autoimmune injury: cytotoxic, functional (stimulate/block), immune-complex, organ vs systemic
- Atopy manifestations by route of exposure
- Skin test = IgE/mast-cell Type I wheal-and-flare
- Raised IgE via Th2 IL-4/IL-13 class-switch
Hypersensitivity “ACID”: Anaphylactic (I), Cytotoxic (II), Immune-complex (III), Delayed (IV). IgE switch = IL-4 & IL-13.
A positive allergy skin test (immediate wheal-and-flare) is mediated by:
- AIgG and complement
- BAllergen cross-linking mast-cell-bound IgE
- CImmune complexes
- DSensitised T cells
The cytokines that drive B-cell class-switching to IgE are:
- AIL-2 and IFN-γ
- BIL-12 and TNF
- CIL-4 and IL-13
- DIL-17 and IL-6
Inhaled allergen exposure in an atopic individual most typically causes:
- AAllergic rhinitis and asthma
- BAtopic dermatitis
- CFood urticaria
- DSerum sickness
- ACID: I anaphylactic, II cytotoxic, III immune-complex, IV delayed.
- Skin test = Type I IgE/mast cell.
- IgE switch driven by IL-4 + IL-13 (Th2).
a) Immunopathogenesis of a positive tuberculin test. b) A 5-month-old with IgA, IgM and IgG deficiency — diagnosis; why the baby presents at 5 months and not at birth. c) Five causes of secondary immunodeficiency. d) Predisposing/aetiological factors of autoimmunity. e) Kidney transplant — sources of hyperacute rejection (6).
a) Positive tuberculin test: a Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity reaction — sensitised memory CD4 Th1 cells recognise mycobacterial antigens and release cytokines (notably IFN-γ) that recruit and activate macrophages, producing the palpable induration read at 48–72 h.
b) 5-month-old with IgA/IgM/IgG deficiency: diagnosis — congenital (primary) hypogammaglobulinaemia (e.g. X-linked agammaglobulinaemia). The infant presents at ~5–6 months rather than at birth because maternal IgG transferred across the placenta protects the baby initially and only wanes at around 5–6 months.
c) Five causes of secondary immunodeficiency: HIV/AIDS; malnutrition; malignancy (leukaemia/lymphoma); immunosuppressive drugs/chemotherapy/corticosteroids; diabetes mellitus (or splenectomy).
d) Aetiological factors of autoimmunity: genetic predisposition (HLA associations); female sex/hormonal influence; infections (molecular mimicry); loss of self-tolerance; environmental triggers and certain drugs.
e) Source of hyperacute renal-transplant rejection: preformed recipient antibodies against donor ABO or HLA antigens (from prior transfusion, pregnancy or previous transplant), which immediately activate complement and cause vascular thrombosis.
- Hyperacute rejection = preformed recipient antibody against donor ABO/HLA (from prior transfusion, pregnancy or transplant) → immediate complement-mediated thrombosis.
- 5-month-old with pan-immunoglobulin deficiency = primary hypogammaglobulinaemia (e.g. X-linked agammaglobulinaemia); presents ~5–6 months as maternal IgG wanes.
- Secondary immunodeficiency causes: HIV, malnutrition, malignancy, immunosuppressants/steroids, diabetes (or splenectomy). Autoimmunity: HLA genes, female sex, infection/mimicry, lost tolerance.
- Tuberculin = Type IV DTH (Th1, IFN-γ)
- Primary hypogammaglobulinaemia; maternal IgG waning at ~5–6 months
- Five secondary immunodeficiency causes
- Autoimmunity risk factors (HLA, sex, infection, tolerance loss)
- Hyperacute rejection = preformed anti-ABO/HLA antibody
Rejection timing: Hyperacute = Hours (preformed Ab); Acute = A few weeks (T-cell); Chronic = Countless months (fibrosis).
Hyperacute renal-transplant rejection is caused by:
- APreformed recipient antibodies against donor ABO/HLA antigens
- BCD8 T-cell attack over weeks
- CGradual intimal fibrosis
- DDrug toxicity
An infant with X-linked agammaglobulinaemia typically becomes symptomatic at ~5–6 months because:
- AB cells mature at that age
- BComplement develops late
- CProtective transplacental maternal IgG wanes by then
- DThe thymus involutes
Which is a cause of SECONDARY (acquired) immunodeficiency?
- ADiGeorge syndrome
- BHIV infection
- CX-linked agammaglobulinaemia
- DChronic granulomatous disease
- Hyperacute = preformed anti-ABO/HLA Ab, minutes–hours.
- XLA presents ~5–6 months as maternal IgG wanes.
- Secondary immunodeficiency: HIV, malnutrition, malignancy, drugs, diabetes.
a) List the roles of complement in immune defence (5). b) Briefly describe the effector mechanism of graft rejection (7.5). c) Briefly describe the features and pathogenesis of Type I hypersensitivity.
a) Roles of complement: opsonisation (C3b) to promote phagocytosis; chemotaxis and inflammation via the anaphylatoxins C3a and C5a; direct lysis of pathogens by the membrane-attack complex (C5b–9); clearance of immune complexes; and enhancement of B-cell activation.
b) Effector mechanisms of graft rejection: T-cell-mediated — CD8 cytotoxic T cells directly kill graft cells and CD4 cells drive a delayed-type response; antibody-mediated — antibodies against graft HLA activate complement and damage the vasculature. Recognition is both direct and indirect, giving hyperacute (preformed antibody), acute (T-cell) and chronic (fibrosis, vascular narrowing) patterns.
c) Type I hypersensitivity: an immediate, IgE-mediated reaction. First exposure sensitises — allergen-specific IgE binds mast cells and basophils; on re-exposure the allergen cross-links this IgE, triggering degranulation and release of histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins → vasodilatation, increased vascular permeability and smooth-muscle contraction. It has an early phase (minutes) and a late phase (hours); examples include anaphylaxis, asthma and allergic rhinitis.
- Complement functions: opsonisation (C3b), chemotaxis/inflammation (C3a, C5a anaphylatoxins), lysis (MAC C5b–9), immune-complex clearance, B-cell activation.
- Graft rejection effectors: CD8 CTL + CD4 (cellular) and anti-HLA antibody + complement (humoral) — giving hyperacute, acute and chronic patterns.
- Type I hypersensitivity has an early phase (minutes: histamine) and a late phase (hours: leukotrienes, eosinophils) — explains biphasic anaphylaxis.
- Five complement roles (opsonisation, anaphylatoxins, MAC lysis, clearance, B-cell help)
- Graft rejection: cellular (CTL/CD4) + humoral (anti-HLA/complement)
- Rejection patterns: hyperacute, acute, chronic
- Type I: sensitisation then IgE cross-linking → mediators
- Early vs late phase; examples
Complement = “OLCA-B”: Opsonisation, Lysis (MAC), Chemotaxis/anaphylatoxins, Antibody (immune-complex) clearance, B-cell activation. Anaphylatoxins = C3a & C5a.
Direct lysis of a target cell by complement is achieved by:
- AC3b
- BC3a
- CThe membrane-attack complex (C5b–9)
- DC1 esterase inhibitor
The complement anaphylatoxins that recruit and activate leukocytes are:
- AC1 and C4
- BC3a and C5a
- CC5b and C6
- DC9 only
Type I hypersensitivity is initiated on re-exposure when allergen:
- ABinds free IgG
- BCross-links IgE bound to mast cells and basophils
- CForms immune complexes
- DActivates cytotoxic T cells
- C3b opsonises; C3a/C5a = anaphylatoxins; C5b–9 = MAC lysis.
- Rejection: cellular (CTL) + humoral (anti-HLA/complement).
- Type I: early (histamine) + late (leukotriene) phases.
A 65-year-old diabetic presents with a 3-day febrile respiratory illness, hypoxaemia (SpO₂ 88%), neutrophilia, raised acute-phase proteins and bilateral lower-lobe infiltrates; PCR is positive for influenza (negative for SARS-CoV-2).
a) how the innate immune system detects viruses and initiates an antiviral response (3). b) the THREE major innate immune cells in the response to viral infection, with roles (3). c) role of type I interferons (2). d) role of cytotoxic T cells in eliminating infected cells (3). e) the process of antibody production during viral infection (5). f) TWO ways antibodies help resolve viral infection (2). g) describe a cytokine storm and its contribution to severe influenza (5). h) TWO laboratory markers of a severe inflammatory response, with their significance (2).
a) Innate detection: pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs) recognise viral PAMPs — Toll-like receptors (TLR3/7/8/9) sense viral nucleic acids in endosomes; cytosolic RIG-I/MDA5 sense viral RNA; cGAS–STING senses viral DNA. Signalling via IRF3/7 and NF-κB → production of type I interferons and pro-inflammatory cytokines → an antiviral state.
b) Three innate cells + roles: natural killer (NK) cells — kill infected cells with downregulated MHC-I ("missing self") and secrete IFN-γ; dendritic cells — produce type I IFN and present antigen to prime T cells (bridge to adaptive immunity); macrophages (with neutrophils) — phagocytose virus/debris and secrete TNF, IL-1, IL-6.
c) Type I interferons (IFN-α/β): induce an antiviral state in neighbouring cells (upregulate PKR, RNase L, Mx proteins that block viral replication) and enhance MHC-I expression while activating NK cells and CTLs to clear infected cells.
d) Cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells: recognise viral peptides on MHC-I of infected cells via the TCR and kill them by releasing perforin (pore formation) and granzymes (apoptosis) and via Fas–FasL; they also secrete IFN-γ and generate memory CD8 cells.
e) Antibody production: viral antigen is taken up by APCs and presented on MHC-II to CD4+ helper T cells; naïve B cells bind antigen via the BCR and receive T-cell help (CD40–CD40L, cytokines); in germinal centres B cells undergo clonal expansion, class switching (IgM→IgG/IgA) and affinity maturation (somatic hypermutation), then differentiate into plasma cells (secreting antibody) and memory B cells — early IgM followed by high-affinity IgG.
f) Two ways antibodies help: neutralisation (bind virus and block attachment/entry); opsonisation/complement activation/ADCC (flag virus and infected cells for phagocytosis or NK-mediated killing).
g) Cytokine storm: an excessive, dysregulated systemic release of pro-inflammatory cytokines (IL-6, TNF-α, IL-1, IFN-γ, IL-8) by overactivated immune cells. In severe influenza it causes increased vascular permeability, pulmonary oedema and alveolar/endothelial damage → ARDS, with amplifying neutrophil/macrophage recruitment; systemically it causes hypotension and multi-organ dysfunction — driving the severe pneumonia and hypoxaemia seen here.
h) Two markers of severe inflammation: C-reactive protein (acute-phase protein; a marked rise reflects severe inflammation/infection and correlates with severity) and procalcitonin (rises with bacterial infection/severe inflammation — helps flag secondary bacterial infection and gauge severity). Neutrophilia and raised acute-phase proteins in this patient signal a severe inflammatory response.
- Innate sensing: PRRs (TLR3/7/8/9, cytosolic RIG-I/MDA5, cGAS–STING) detect viral nucleic acid → IRF3/7 & NF-κB → type I interferons.
- CD8 cytotoxic T cells recognise viral peptide on MHC-I and kill via perforin/granzyme and Fas–FasL. NK cells kill “missing-self” MHC-I-low cells.
- Cytokine storm = excessive IL-6, TNF-α, IL-1, IFN-γ, IL-8 → vascular leak, pulmonary oedema, ARDS, multi-organ failure. Markers: CRP, procalcitonin.
- Antibodies help two ways: neutralisation (block entry) and opsonisation/complement/ADCC (flag virus and infected cells for killing).
- Innate detection via PRRs → IFN
- Three innate cells (NK, DC, macrophage) + roles
- Type I IFN antiviral state
- CTL killing (perforin/granzyme, Fas)
- Antibody production (germinal centre, class switch); two protective roles
- Cytokine storm → ARDS; severity markers
Antiviral order: “PINK-A” — PRR sensing, Interferon, NK, Killer (CD8) T cells, Antibody.
Type I interferons (IFN-α/β) contribute to antiviral defence mainly by:
- ADirectly lysing virus particles
- BInducing an antiviral state in neighbouring cells and activating NK cells
- CProducing antibody
- DPresenting antigen on MHC-II
Cytotoxic CD8 T cells kill virus-infected cells chiefly through:
- AHistamine release
- BAntibody secretion
- CPerforin and granzymes (and Fas–FasL)
- DComplement fixation
The cytokine storm in severe influenza most directly causes lung injury by:
- AReducing all cytokines
- BIncreasing vascular permeability → pulmonary oedema and ARDS
- CBlocking neutrophils
- DLowering CRP
- PRRs (TLR, RIG-I, cGAS–STING) → type I IFN.
- NK = missing-self; CTL = perforin/granzyme.
- Cytokine storm → ARDS; markers CRP, procalcitonin.
- Antibody: neutralise + opsonise/ADCC.
a) describe four techniques that can be employed in DNA analysis (12.5). b) describe how monoclonal antibodies are produced and provide two applications of monoclonal antibodies (12.5).
a) Four DNA-analysis techniques:
- Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): enzymatic amplification of a target sequence using primers, dNTPs and Taq polymerase through cycles of denaturation, annealing and extension; amplifies tiny amounts of DNA for detection of infections or mutations.
- Gel electrophoresis: separates DNA fragments by size through an agarose gel under an electric field (smaller fragments migrate faster); visualised with a stain — used to analyse PCR products or restriction fragments.
- Southern blotting: electrophoresed DNA is transferred to a membrane and detected with a labelled complementary probe; identifies specific sequences (e.g. gene rearrangements).
- DNA sequencing (Sanger / next-generation): determines the exact nucleotide order (Sanger uses chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides); used for mutation detection and diagnostics.
(Also acceptable: RFLP, FISH, microarrays, STR analysis for identity testing.)
b) Monoclonal antibody production (hybridoma technology — Köhler & Milstein):
- Immunise a mouse with the target antigen → antigen-specific B cells develop in the spleen
- Harvest splenic B cells and fuse them with immortal myeloma cells using polyethylene glycol (PEG) → hybridomas (combine antibody production with immortality)
- Culture in HAT selection medium so only fused hybridomas survive
- Screen and select the hybridoma clone making the desired antibody
- Clone from a single cell → identical progeny each secreting one specific (monoclonal) antibody
- Expand in culture (or ascites) for large-scale production
Applications (any two): diagnostic — immunoassays (ELISA), immunohistochemistry, blood typing, pregnancy tests, flow cytometry; therapeutic — cancer therapy (rituximab, trastuzumab), autoimmune disease (infliximab), targeted therapy.
- Four DNA techniques: PCR (amplify), gel electrophoresis (size separation), Southern blot (specific sequence), sequencing (Sanger/NGS — exact order).
- Hybridoma (Köhler & Milstein): fuse antigen-specific spleen B cells with immortal myeloma using PEG; HAT medium selects only fused cells; clone from a single cell.
- mAb uses: diagnostic (ELISA, IHC, blood typing, flow, pregnancy tests) and therapeutic (rituximab, trastuzumab, infliximab).
- Four DNA techniques with principle each (PCR, electrophoresis, Southern, sequencing)
- Hybridoma steps: immunise, fuse (PEG), HAT-select, screen, clone, expand
- B-cell specificity + myeloma immortality
- Two applications (diagnostic/therapeutic)
mAb = “IF-HSC”: Immunise, Fuse (PEG), HAT select, Screen, Clone. HAT kills unfused myeloma (they lack HGPRT).
In hybridoma technology, antibody-secreting B cells are immortalised by fusing them with:
- ABacteria
- BMyeloma cells using polyethylene glycol
- CRed blood cells
- DFibroblasts
HAT selection medium works because:
- AIt kills all hybridomas
- BIt only supports unfused B cells
- CUnfused myeloma cells lack HGPRT and die, so only fused hybridomas survive
- DIt amplifies DNA
Which technique determines the exact nucleotide order of a DNA segment?
- ASanger (or next-generation) sequencing
- BGel electrophoresis
- CELISA
- DFlow cytometry
- DNA methods: PCR, electrophoresis, Southern, sequencing.
- Hybridoma = B cell + myeloma via PEG.
- HAT selects fused cells (myeloma lacks HGPRT).
- mAbs: rituximab, trastuzumab, infliximab.
A knowledgeable 55-year-old lady underwent a mastectomy when she was diagnosed with carcinoma of the right breast. She successfully completed radio- and chemotherapy and was disease-free for 3 years. Recently she was found to have a lump in the left breast which, on FNAC, was diagnosed as carcinoma of the breast. a) Using your knowledge of immunology, how can you explain the clinical scenario to the patient (15)? b) She is advised to consider immunotherapy as a possible adjuvant. Discuss possible immunotherapeutic modalities with the patient (10).
a) Immunological explanation: normally the immune system performs immune surveillance, with cytotoxic T cells and NK cells recognising and destroying tumour cells that display tumour antigens. Tumours evade this through immunoediting, described in three phases - elimination, equilibrium and escape:
- Down-regulation or loss of MHC class I so cytotoxic T cells can no longer recognise the tumour cells
- Secretion of immunosuppressive cytokines (TGF-beta, IL-10) and recruitment of regulatory T cells and myeloid-derived suppressor cells
- Expression of checkpoint ligands (PD-L1) that switch off attacking T cells
- A residual clone that survived surgery, chemo- and radiotherapy remained in equilibrium (dormant) and later escaped immune control to grow
So the new lump may represent escape of dormant tumour cells (recurrence) or a second primary in the remaining breast tissue that the immune system failed to eliminate.
b) Immunotherapeutic modalities:
- Monoclonal antibodies: trastuzumab (anti-HER2) if HER2-positive, pertuzumab, and antibody-drug conjugates such as T-DM1
- Immune checkpoint inhibitors: anti-PD-1 / PD-L1 agents (pembrolizumab, atezolizumab), particularly in triple-negative disease
- Cancer vaccines: tumour-antigen / HER2 peptide vaccines to prime an anti-tumour response
- Adoptive cell therapy: tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes or CAR-T cells (experimental in solid tumours)
- Cytokine therapy: interferons and IL-2 as adjuncts
Explain that the aim is to boost anti-tumour immunity, that suitability depends on receptor and PD-L1 status, and that immune-related (autoimmune) side effects can occur.
- Immunoediting has three phases — elimination (surveillance by CTL/NK), equilibrium (dormancy + variant selection), escape (immune-evasive clone grows).
- Escape mechanisms: MHC-I loss, PD-L1 expression, immunosuppressive TGF-β/IL-10, and recruitment of Tregs/MDSCs.
- Immunotherapy modalities: mAbs (trastuzumab if HER2+), checkpoint inhibitors (anti-PD-1/PD-L1), cancer vaccines, adoptive cell therapy (CAR-T/TILs), cytokines (IFN, IL-2).
- Suitability depends on receptor/PD-L1 status; warn about immune-related (autoimmune) adverse effects of checkpoint inhibitors.
- Immune surveillance by CTL/NK
- Immunoediting: elimination, equilibrium, escape
- Escape: MHC-I loss, PD-L1, TGF-β/IL-10, Tregs/MDSC
- Recurrence vs second primary
- Immunotherapy: mAbs, checkpoint inhibitors, vaccines, adoptive cell therapy, cytokines
- Caveats: receptor status, irAEs
The three E’s: Elimination → Equilibrium → Escape. Escape tools: “MPTT” — MHC-I loss, PD-L1, Tregs/MDSC, TGF-β/IL-10.
The three phases of cancer immunoediting are:
- AInitiation, promotion, progression
- BGrade 1, 2, 3
- CElimination, equilibrium, escape
- DHyperacute, acute, chronic
A tumour that expresses PD-L1 evades immunity by:
- AIncreasing MHC-I
- BSwitching off attacking T cells via the PD-1/PD-L1 checkpoint
- CActivating complement
- DRecruiting neutrophils
Trastuzumab is an appropriate targeted immunotherapy when the breast tumour is:
- AHER2-positive
- BHER2-negative
- CER-negative only
- DPD-L1-negative
- Immunoediting: elimination → equilibrium → escape.
- Escape: MHC-I loss, PD-L1, Tregs/MDSC, TGF-β/IL-10.
- Checkpoint inhibitors block PD-1/PD-L1 or CTLA-4.
- Trastuzumab = anti-HER2.
Source paper index
The first 13 papers come from the 100 PDF pages (in document order). The remaining papers were added later from photographed exam scripts rather than the PDF. "Answered" = SAQs with a written model answer.
| Paper | SAQs | Answered |
|---|---|---|
| MBChB III Make-Up CAT 2024 | 4 | 0 |
| MBChB III CAT 2024 | 2 | 0 |
| MBChB IV · HHP 400 General Pathology · Oct 2023 | 10 | 10 |
| HHP300 General Pathology Essay · 19 June 2023 | 10 | 10 |
| HHP300 Supplementary/Special · Sept 2023 | 10 | 10 |
| MBChB IV 2021/22 Pathology Essay · 10 Feb 2023 | 11 | 11 |
| MBChB III Essays CAT 2022/2023 | 7 | 0 |
| Immunology / MBChB IV Essays CAT 2022/2023 | 10 | 1 |
| Level 4 Combined CAT 2020/2021 | 6 | 2 |
| Make-Up CAT 2020/2021 | 3 | 0 |
| CAT 2020/2021 (Panwar collection) | 8 | 0 |
| Level IV EOY 2019/2020 · HHP 400 | 7 | 0 |
| Level IV EOY 2018/2019 | 2 | 2 |
| HHP 3300 General Pathology Essay · UoN 2024/25 · 19 May 2025 · added from photos | 5 | 5 |
| MBChB III General Pathology CAT Essay · 17 Jan 2025 · added from photos | 7 | 7 |
| MBChB IV Make-Up CAT 2017/2018 · 17 Aug 2018 · added from photos | 4 | 4 |
| HHP 400 EOY 2016/2017 · 22 May 2017 · added from photos | 8 | 8 |
Page-processing log (1-100)
Every page was read individually. Hover a cell for its status. Blank or unreadable scan pages are marked rather than invented.
About this build & honest caveats
What this is, and where to be careful.
- Source: "Systemic Pathology SAQs (04)", a 628-page CamScanner PDF. This resource covers pages 1-100 of that PDF (Section 1: Recent Systemic Pathology Essays), plus two 2024/25 UoN papers added later: the HHP 3300 General Pathology Essay (19 May 2025) and the MBChB III General Pathology CAT Essay (17 Jan 2025), together 12 extra SAQs.
- Method: the PDF has no text layer, so each page was rendered and OCR'd, then cleaned by hand. Obvious scan errors were fixed (e.g. "anisktchow" to Anitschkow, "vorniting" to vomiting) without adding medical facts. The two 2024/25 papers were read directly off phone photos, not the OCR pipeline, so their tables were transcribed by eye.
- Categorisation is a judgement call. Several SAQs straddle disciplines (Burkitt lymphoma is filed under Anatomical Pathology but is haemato-lymphoid; PSGN sits under Immunology for its immunopathogenesis focus). Use the search bar if you can't find something where you expected.
- Model answers are the compiler's student answers, not an official marking scheme (except the two Okemwa / anatomic-pathology excerpts). A few contain errors flagged inline. Treat them as peer notes and verify against Robbins / a standard text before you rely on them. For instance, the "severe vomiting" answer on p34 leans toward metabolic acidosis, whereas pure vomiting classically causes a hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
- The 2024/25 papers are different. Those two papers were question-only (no student answers on the scripts), so their model answers were written for this build against standard pathology texts, not copied from the compiler. They are best treated as worked model answers, still worth checking against Robbins before you rely on them.
- Two spots to double-check on the 2024/25 papers: the DKA case had a smudged pCO₂ reference on the scan ("35-4mmHg"), read here as 35-45. And the neonatal jaundice question only printed enzyme values for Baby A, so the "not deranged" reasoning applies to that column; the conjugated Baby B picture would be expected to raise ALP/GGT.
- Some pages were fragmentary (e.g. p74, p89 headers) and are transcribed as far as legible, with gaps noted.
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